As part of the treatment for congestive heart failure, the child takes the diuretic furosemide. As part of teaching home care, the nurse encourages the family to give the child foods such as bananas, oranges, and leafy vegetables. These foods are recommended because they are high in what electrolyte?
Potassium.
Sodium.
Chlorides.
Zinc.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Potassium.
Choice A rationale:
Diuretics like furosemide are commonly used to treat congestive heart failure. They work by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, from the body. Low levels of potassium (hypokalemia) can lead to various complications, including cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Since furosemide can cause potassium loss, it's important to ensure an adequate intake of potassium-rich foods. Bananas, oranges, and leafy vegetables are excellent sources of potassium. Therefore, the nurse encourages the family to include these foods in the child's diet to help maintain a healthy potassium balance.
Choice B rationale:
Sodium is an important electrolyte, but in the context of congestive heart failure and diuretic use, the focus is more on avoiding excessive sodium intake. Diuretics like furosemide aim to reduce fluid retention by increasing sodium excretion, so it's not necessary to recommend high-sodium foods. Moreover, excessive sodium intake could exacerbate fluid retention and worsen the heart failure.
Choice C rationale:
Chlorides are often found in table salt (sodium chloride) and are not typically emphasized in the context of heart failure treatment or diuretic use. While they play a role in maintaining electrolyte balance, they are not the primary focus in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Zinc is a mineral that is not directly related to the treatment of congestive heart failure or the use of diuretics. It is important for various cellular functions and immune system support, but it's not the electrolyte of concern in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy.
Choice A rationale:
Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy. This choice is incorrect because it includes "aortic hypertrophy" and "left ventricular hypertrophy," which are not components of the tetralogy of Fallot. Aortic hypertrophy is not a recognized structural defect in tetralogy of Fallot, and left ventricular hypertrophy is not a characteristic feature of this congenital heart condition.
Choice B rationale:
Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. This is the correct choice. Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by four specific structural defects: pulmonic stenosis (narrowing of the pulmonary valve), ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles), overriding aorta (aorta positioned over the ventricular septal defect, receiving blood from both ventricles), and right ventricular hypertrophy (enlargement of the right ventricle due to increased workload).
Choice C rationale:
Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. This choice is incorrect because it includes "aortic stenosis," which is not part of the tetralogy of Fallot. In tetralogy of Fallot, the stenosis occurs at the pulmonary valve, not the aortic valve.
Choice D rationale:
Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy. This choice is incorrect. While "overriding aorta" is present in tetralogy of Fallot, "atrial septal defect" and "left ventricular hypertrophy" are not part of this condition. Atrial septal defects involve a hole between the two atria, not the ventricles, and left ventricular hypertrophy is not typically seen in tetralogy of Fallot.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, E.
Choice A rationale:
Using an air conditioner is an effective way to reduce exposure to pollens and dust. Air conditioners filter the air and help prevent outdoor allergens from entering the indoor environment. This choice is correct because it addresses one of the primary sources of exposure to allergens.
Choice B rationale:
Keeping humidity in the house above 60% is not a recommended approach. High humidity can promote the growth of mold and dust mites, which can exacerbate allergies. Maintaining humidity levels between 30-50% is generally recommended for reducing allergen exposure.
Choice C rationale:
Keeping pets outside might seem like a logical option to reduce allergen exposure; however, pet allergens can still be carried indoors on clothing and shoes. Moreover, if individuals are not allergic to pet dander, keeping the pets inside may not pose an issue.
Choice D rationale:
Replacing wall-to-wall carpeting with wood and tile floors is a good strategy for reducing allergen exposure. Carpets can trap dust, pollen, and other allergens, while hard surfaces are easier to clean and do not accumulate allergens as readily. This choice is correct because it addresses a common source of indoor allergens.
Choice E rationale:
Putting dust-proof covers on pillows and mattresses is another effective strategy for reducing allergen exposure. These covers create a barrier that prevents dust mites and their allergens from permeating the sleeping environment. This choice is correct because it directly addresses the issue of dust mite allergens.
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