Lorretta, a 35-year-old female, is brought to the emergency department with complaints of bleeding from multiple sites, including her nose and gums. She also presents with pain and swelling in her left leg. She has a past medical history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is currently on anticoagulant therapy. On examination, she has petechiae on her skin, swollen and tender left leg, and blood oozing from her IV site. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, decreased platelet count, elevated D-dimer levels, and prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). What is going on with Lorretta?
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Hemophilia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) causes isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune platelet destruction, leading to bleeding like petechiae. However, it does not typically cause prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, or DVT, making it inconsistent with Lorretta’s multi-system coagulopathy.
Choice B reason: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage but typically presents with neurological or renal symptoms, not prolonged PT/aPTT or DVT. Lorretta’s coagulopathy and DVT history better align with another condition, making TTP incorrect.
Choice C reason: Hemophilia, a genetic clotting factor deficiency, causes prolonged aPTT but not thrombocytopenia, elevated D-dimer, or DVT. It primarily affects males and causes joint or muscle bleeds, not diffuse bleeding like Lorretta’s, making this an incorrect diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, causing thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and petechiae. Lorretta’s DVT history and anticoagulant use may trigger DIC, with leg swelling indicating thrombosis, making this the correct diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Weight loss occurs in both DKA and HHNS due to prolonged hyperglycemia and fluid loss. Kussmaul respirations are specific to DKA’s acidosis, so this is incorrect for DKA-only.
Choice B reason: Kussmaul respirations, rapid and deep breathing, are unique to DKA, compensating for metabolic acidosis from ketones. HHNS lacks significant acidosis, making this the correct DKA-specific manifestation.
Choice C reason: Increased serum glucose is common to both DKA and HHNS, as both involve severe hyperglycemia. Kussmaul respirations are DKA-specific, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Fluid loss occurs in both DKA and HHNS due to osmotic diuresis. Kussmaul respirations are exclusive to DKA’s acidotic state, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pyuria, urgency, and frequency are typical UTI symptoms, but elderly patients often present with atypical signs like confusion. Confusion is more prominent in this age group, so this is less specific and incorrect.
Choice B reason: Dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain are common UTI symptoms, but elderly patients may show confusion instead of classic signs. Confusion and frequency are more likely, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: In elderly patients (85 years), UTIs often cause confusion due to altered mental status, alongside frequency. Atypical symptoms like confusion are common, making this the correct manifestation for this age group.
Choice D reason: Hematuria and flank pain suggest complicated UTIs or kidney issues, not typical in elderly UTI presentation. Confusion and frequency are more expected, so this is incorrect.
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