The nurse caring for mechanically ventilated clients uses best practices to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. What actions are included in this practice? (Select all that apply)
Adherence to proper hand hygiene
Suction the client at least every 2 hours
Administering antiulcer medication
Providing oral care per protocol
Elevating the head of the bed
Suctioning the client on a regular schedule
Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E,G
Choice A Reason: Adherence to proper hand hygiene
Proper hand hygiene is a fundamental practice in preventing infections, including ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after patient contact, after touching potentially contaminated surfaces, and before performing any aseptic procedures. This practice helps to reduce the transmission of pathogens that can cause infections in mechanically ventilated patients. Studies have shown that adherence to hand hygiene protocols significantly decreases the incidence of VAP and other healthcare-associated infections.
Choice B Reason: Suction the client at least every 2 hours
While suctioning is an important aspect of care for mechanically ventilated patients, routine suctioning every 2 hours is not recommended. Instead, suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical condition and as needed. Over-suctioning can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice C Reason: Administering antiulcer medication
Administering antiulcer medication is a recommended practice to prevent stress ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding in mechanically ventilated patients. Stress ulcers can lead to complications such as aspiration of gastric contents, which can contribute to the development of VAP. Antiulcer medications, such as proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor antagonists, help to reduce gastric acidity and the risk of ulcer formation. This practice is part of the comprehensive care plan to prevent VAP.
Choice D Reason: Providing oral care per protocol
Providing oral care per protocol is a critical component of VAP prevention. Oral care involves cleaning the patient’s mouth, teeth, and gums to reduce the colonization of harmful bacteria that can be aspirated into the lungs. Protocols for oral care typically include the use of antiseptic solutions, such as chlorhexidine, to disinfect the oral cavity. Regular oral care has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients.
Choice E Reason: Elevating the head of the bed
Elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees is a recommended practice to prevent VAP. This position helps to reduce the risk of aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, which is a major risk factor for VAP. Elevating the head of the bed also promotes better lung expansion and ventilation, which can improve the patient’s respiratory status. This practice is widely recognized as an effective measure to prevent VAP.
Choice F Reason: Suctioning the client on a regular schedule
Similar to Choice B, routine suctioning on a regular schedule is not recommended. Suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical needs and not on a fixed schedule. Over-suctioning can cause harm and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice G Reason: Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours
Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours is an important practice to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to promote lung expansion. Regular repositioning helps to improve ventilation and drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of VAP. This practice is part of the standard care for mechanically ventilated patients to prevent various complications, including VAP.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A decreased thyroxine (T4) level is not expected in a client with Graves’ disease. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, including T4. Therefore, the T4 level is typically elevated, not decreased.
Choice B Reason:
Similarly, a decreased triiodothyronine (T3) level is not expected in Graves’ disease. Like T4, T3 levels are usually elevated due to the overactive thyroid gland. T3 is the active form of thyroid hormone and is often increased in hyperthyroid conditions.
Choice C Reason:
Decreased thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) percentage is incorrect. In Graves’ disease, TSI levels are elevated because these antibodies stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones. TSI mimics the action of TSH, leading to increased production of T3 and T4.
Choice D Reason:
Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is the correct answer. In Graves’ disease, the excessive thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) exert negative feedback on the pituitary gland, leading to suppressed TSH production. Therefore, TSH levels are typically low in patients with Graves’ disease.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Choice A: Monitor for hypernatremia.
Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels in the blood, is a common complication of diabetes insipidus due to excessive water loss and insufficient water intake. Monitoring for hypernatremia involves regular blood tests to check sodium levels. Symptoms of hypernatremia include extreme thirst, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Early detection and management are crucial to prevent severe complications.
Choice B: Monitor neuro status.
Monitoring neurological status is essential in patients with diabetes insipidus because severe hypernatremia can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, irritability, seizures, and even coma. Regular assessments of mental status, level of consciousness, and neurological function help in early detection of complications and timely intervention.
Choice C: Monitor for hyponatremia.
While hyponatremia (low sodium levels) is less common in diabetes insipidus, it can occur if there is excessive water intake without adequate sodium replacement. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and seizures. Monitoring sodium levels helps in maintaining a balance and preventing complications.
Choice D: Monitor urine specific gravity.
Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine. In diabetes insipidus, urine is typically very dilute, with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. Regular monitoring helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment and the patient’s hydration status. It also aids in differentiating diabetes insipidus from other conditions with similar symptoms.
Choice E: Monitor strict I&O.
Strict monitoring of intake and output (I&O) is crucial in managing diabetes insipidus. This involves accurately measuring all fluids consumed and excreted to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance. It helps in identifying trends in fluid loss and guiding appropriate fluid replacement therapy.
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