Patient Data
History and Physical
The client is a 34-year-old male with a history of seasonal allergies and asthma. He was jogging this morning and became short of breath. He took one puff of an "emergency inhaler" but is unsure of the name of the medication. Upon exam, the client is anxious, tachypneic, tachycardic, and wheezing.
Review history.
Which 2 drugs would be the most appropriate to give the client now?
Salmeterol via nebulizer
Albuterol via nebulizer
Fexofenadine orally
Levalbuterol inhaler
Racemic epinephrine via nebulizer
Budesonide via metered dose inhaler
Correct Answer : B,D
A. Salmeterol via nebulizer: Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and is used for maintenance therapy, not for acute bronchospasm. It has a delayed onset of action and is not suitable for emergency relief.
B. Albuterol via nebulizer: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that acts quickly to relax bronchial smooth muscle, relieving acute bronchospasm. It is one of the first-line treatments during an asthma exacerbation or acute respiratory distress.
C. Fexofenadine orally: Fexofenadine is an oral antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis, not acute bronchospasm. It would not provide the rapid airway dilation needed in an emergency asthma situation.
D. Levalbuterol inhaler: Levalbuterol is another short-acting beta-2 agonist similar to albuterol, used for quick relief of bronchospasm. It is appropriate for emergency use to improve airway obstruction rapidly.
E. Racemic epinephrine via nebulizer: Racemic epinephrine is typically used for upper airway obstruction, such as croup or severe airway swelling, not lower airway bronchospasm like in asthma. It is not first-line treatment for an asthma exacerbation.
F. Budesonide via metered dose inhaler: Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid intended for long-term asthma control, not immediate relief. Its onset is delayed, making it unsuitable for managing acute respiratory distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
Explanation
- Pure opioid agonist: Morphine is classified as a pure opioid agonist because it fully binds and activates opioid receptors, particularly mu receptors, producing maximum analgesic effects for moderate to severe pain management.
- Mixed opioid antagonist: Mixed opioid antagonists, like nalbuphine, both activate and block opioid receptors depending on the site. Morphine does not block opioid activity; it purely stimulates, making this choice incorrect.
- Non-opioid analgesic: Non-opioid analgesics, such as acetaminophen and NSAIDs, relieve mild to moderate pain without acting on opioid receptors. Morphine’s mechanism and use are specific to the opioid class.
- Partial opioid agonist: Partial agonists, such as buprenorphine, activate opioid receptors but produce a weaker response compared to pure agonists. Morphine elicits a full receptor response, differentiating it from partial agonists.
- Mu: Mu receptors are the primary opioid receptors activated by morphine, leading to effects such as analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, and decreased gastrointestinal motility.
- Beta: Beta receptors are adrenergic receptors involved in cardiovascular responses, not pain modulation. Morphine does not interact with beta receptors.
- Alpha: Alpha receptors are also part of the adrenergic system and regulate vascular tone and blood pressure. Morphine’s action is not through alpha receptor activation.
- Severe pain: Morphine is most commonly used to treat moderate to severe acute or chronic pain, especially postoperative pain, cancer pain, and trauma-related injuries requiring strong opioid therapy.
- Hypertension: Morphine is not indicated for treating hypertension. While it may indirectly lower blood pressure due to vasodilation and reduced sympathetic tone, it is not a therapeutic antihypertensive agent.
- Depression: Morphine is not used for managing depression. Although it can induce feelings of euphoria, its clinical use is strictly for pain relief, not mood disorders.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Give with prescribed antihistamine: Administering an antihistamine may help manage mild allergic reactions but does not prevent the risk of a serious, potentially life-threatening anaphylactic reaction. It is unsafe to rely solely on antihistamines when the client has a known severe penicillin allergy and is prescribed a related antibiotic like cephalexin.
B. Administer the medication as prescribed: Cephalexin is a cephalosporin, and there is a known cross-sensitivity with penicillins, especially in clients with a history of anaphylaxis. Administering the drug without verifying safety first exposes the client to unnecessary and serious risk.
C. Monitor the client for a rash or hives: While monitoring is important after administering any new medication, simply observing for early signs of an allergic reaction is not a proactive or safe strategy when anaphylaxis is a possibility. Prevention of exposure is the priority.
D. Contact the healthcare provider (HCP): Clients with a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin are at increased risk for cross-reactivity with cephalosporins. The safest action is to notify the HCP immediately to discuss an alternative antibiotic, avoiding the possibility of a dangerous allergic response.
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