Which of the following ADHD medications is not a stimulant?
Adderall
Strattera
Vyvanse
Ritalin
The Correct Answer is B
A. Adderall (amphetamine/dextroamphetamine) is a stimulant that increases dopamine and norepinephrine levels in the brain, improving focus and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. It is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its potential for abuse and dependence.
B. Strattera (atomoxetine) is a non-stimulant medication used for ADHD. It is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (NRI) that helps with attention and impulse control but has a lower risk of abuse compared to stimulant medications. Unlike stimulants, it may take several weeks to show full effects.
C. Vyvanse (lisdexamfetamine) is a stimulant that is a prodrug of dextroamphetamine, meaning it must be metabolized in the body before becoming active. This mechanism provides a longer, smoother effect with a lower potential for abuse compared to immediate-release stimulants.
D. Ritalin (methylphenidate) is a stimulant that increases dopamine and norepinephrine activity in the brain, improving focus and impulse control. It is commonly used in both children and adults with ADHD and has short-acting, intermediate, and long-acting formulations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vindictive. Being vindictive is more characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) rather than conduct disorder (CD). While both disorders involve defiant and hostile behavior, ODD is marked by persistent anger, argumentativeness, and vindictiveness, whereas CD includes more severe violations of social norms and the rights of others.
B. Deceitful. Deceitfulness is a core symptom of conduct disorder. It includes lying, manipulating others, shoplifting, and breaking promises for personal gain. This behavior is often done without guilt or remorse.
C. Aggressive towards people and animals. Physical aggression is a defining feature of conduct disorder. Individuals may bully, threaten, fight, use weapons, or show cruelty towards animals without regard for others' safety.
D. Destroying property. Conduct disorder includes deliberate destruction of property, such as vandalism, arson, or breaking into buildings, often as a way to exert control or express defiance.
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