Severe or progressive glomerular disease eventually leads to oliguria. Which of the following is a correct "definition" of oliguria?
Urine output <30mL/hour
Absence of urine output
Increased urine output
Urine output>100mL/hour
The Correct Answer is A
A. Urine output <30mL/hour: Oliguria is defined as a markedly reduced urine output, typically less than 400 mL per day or less than 30 mL per hour. It indicates decreased kidney function or perfusion and is common in progressive renal conditions.
B. Absence of urine output: This describes anuria, not oliguria. Anuria is defined as urine output less than 100 mL per day and signifies severe kidney failure or complete urinary tract obstruction.
C. Increased urine output: This describes polyuria, often associated with conditions like uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, not oliguria.
D. Urine output >100mL/hour: This is well above the threshold for oliguria and may suggest diuresis or overhydration. It does not meet the criteria for decreased kidney output.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy beta cells in the pancreas: This describes the autoimmune process characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus, where the immune system attacks pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency.
B. Need for lifelong insulin injections: Lifelong insulin therapy is typically required in Type 1 diabetes due to absolute insulin deficiency. Many individuals with Type 2 diabetes can manage their condition initially with lifestyle changes and oral medications.
C. Increase of glucagon secretion from beta cells of the pancreas: Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells, not beta cells, in the pancreas. Dysregulation of glucagon contributes to hyperglycemia but is not a defining feature distinguishing Type 2 diabetes.
D. Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues: Type 2 diabetes is primarily characterized by insulin resistance, where muscle, fat, and liver cells do not respond properly to insulin, leading to elevated blood glucose levels despite normal or increased insulin production. This resistance is a hallmark feature distinguishing it from Type 1 diabetes.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Tubular necrosis: Tubular necrosis refers to the death of tubular epithelial cells in the kidneys, commonly due to ischemia or toxins. This is not the primary defect in Potter syndrome, which involves developmental abnormalities rather than acute tubular injury.
B. Renal hyperplasia: Hyperplasia means increased cell number leading to organ enlargement. Potter syndrome typically involves renal hypoplasia or agenesis rather than hyperplasia, so this is not consistent with the syndrome’s defect.
C. Renal failure: Potter syndrome primarily results from bilateral renal agenesis or severe renal dysplasia, leading to absent or nonfunctional kidneys and subsequent renal failure. The lack of functional kidneys leads to oligohydramnios and the characteristic features of Potter syndrome.
D. Renal metaplasia: Metaplasia refers to abnormal transformation of one differentiated tissue type into another. This process is not the main defect in Potter syndrome, which is related to kidney development failure rather than abnormal tissue differentiation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
