The client at 42 weeks' pregnancy is admited for induction of her labor. Which statement indicates that she understands the Reasons for the induction?
Select one:
"If I go too long overdue, the amniotic fluid volume can become too low for my baby to be safe."
"My baby took longer to grow, and now she's ready to be born."
"I don't really need this induction, my baby will come whenever he wants to."
"Since I am so tired of being pregnant, I am being induced."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: "If I go too long overdue, the amniotic fluid volume can become too low for my baby to be safe." This is a correct answer that indicates that the client understands one of the Reasons for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy.
Choice B Reason: "My baby took longer to grow, and now she's ready to be born." This is an incorrect answer that shows a misconception about fetal growth and development. Fetal growth does not depend on gestational age alone, but also on genetic, maternal, placental, and environmental factors. A post-term fetus does not necessarily grow faster or larger than a term fetus. In fact, some post-term fetuses may experience intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which means slower than expected growth for gestational age.
Choice C Reason: "I don't really need this induction, my baby will come whenever he wants to." This is an incorrect answer that reveals a lack of awareness or acceptance of the need for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy. Induction of labor is recommended for post-term pregnancies to prevent potential complications such as fetal distress, stillbirth, or maternal hemorrhage.
Choice D Reason: "Since I am so tired of being pregnant, I am being induced." This is an incorrect answer that implies that induction of labor is based on maternal preference or convenience rather than medical indication. Induction of labor should not be done without a valid Reason or informed consent, as it carries some risks such as failed induction, prolonged labor, infection, uterine rupture, or cesarean delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Macrosomic fetus is a fetus that weighs more than 4000 grams or 8 pounds 13 ounces at birth. It is not a common complication of teenage pregnancy, but rather of maternal diabetes, obesity, or a history of large babies.
Choice B Reason: Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy. It can cause serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as seizures, organ damage, growth restriction, and placental abruption. Teenage pregnancy is a risk factor for preeclampsia, especially if the mother is younger than 15 years old.
Choice C Reason: Inadequate nutritional status of mother is a condition where the mother does not consume enough calories, protein, vitamins, minerals, or fluids during pregnancy. It can affect the growth and development of the baby and increase the risk of low birth weight, preterm birth, and birth defects. Teenage pregnancy is a risk factor for inadequate nutritional status of mother, as teenagers may have poor dietary habits, eating disorders, or limited access to food.
Choice D Reason: Cephalopelvic disproportion is a condition where the size or shape of the baby's head or body is too large to fit through the mother's pelvis. It can prevent normal vaginal delivery and require cesarean section. Teenage pregnancy is a risk factor for cephalopelvic disproportion, as teenagers may have smaller or immature pelvises that are not fully developed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Shoulder dystocia. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different obstetric complication. Shoulder dystocia is a condition where the baby's shoulder gets stuck behind the mother's pubic bone during delivery, which can cause nerve injury, fracture, or asphyxia to the baby. Shoulder dystocia does not cause fetal bradycardia, abdominal pain, or vaginal bleeding.
Choice B Reason: Placental abruption. This is a correct answer that explains the symptoms of fetal bradycardia, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding in a woman with a history of crack cocaine use. Placental abruption. This is because placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause fetal distress, maternal hemorrhage, and shock. Placental abruption can be triggered by maternal hypertension, trauma, or substance abuse, such as crack cocaine.
Choice C Reason: Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a rare and fatal condition also known as amniotic fluid embolism. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy is a condition where amniotic fluid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause fetal bradycardia or vaginal bleeding.
Choice D Reason: Placenta previa. This is an incorrect answer that indicates another placental disorder. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the cervix, which can cause painless bright red bleeding during pregnancy or labor. Placenta previa does not cause fetal bradycardia or abdominal pain.
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