To achieve therapeutic effectiveness, a nurse teaches a patient with chronic asthma to use an inhaled glucocorticoid medication according to which schedule?
To abort an asthma attack
Only in an emergency
On a daily basis
2 weeks on, 2 weeks off
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Inhaled glucocorticoids, like budesonide, reduce airway inflammation over time but don’t act quickly enough to abort acute asthma attacks. Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) are used for acute relief, as glucocorticoids lack immediate bronchodilatory effects, making this choice incorrect for chronic asthma management.
Choice B reason: Using inhaled glucocorticoids only in emergencies is ineffective for chronic asthma. These drugs prevent inflammation and exacerbations through consistent use, not acute intervention. Emergency use is reserved for rescue inhalers like albuterol, making this choice inappropriate for long-term asthma control.
Choice C reason: Inhaled glucocorticoids require daily use to maintain anti-inflammatory effects, reducing airway hyperresponsiveness and preventing asthma exacerbations. Consistent dosing ensures steady suppression of chronic inflammation, improving lung function and reducing symptoms, making this the correct choice for managing chronic asthma effectively.
Choice D reason: A 2-week on/off schedule disrupts the consistent anti-inflammatory action of inhaled glucocorticoids needed for chronic asthma control. Intermittent use reduces efficacy, allowing inflammation to rebound, increasing exacerbation risk. Daily use is standard to maintain therapeutic benefits, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like rash, itching, or anaphylaxis, not jaundice, dark urine, or light stools. These symptoms indicate hepatobiliary dysfunction, not an immune-mediated response. Allergic reactions don’t typically affect liver function or bile excretion, making this choice inconsistent with the patient’s clinical presentation.
Choice B reason: Idiosyncratic drug effects on bone marrow cause hematologic issues like anemia or leukopenia, not jaundice or light stools. These symptoms suggest liver dysfunction, as bile pigment changes cause dark urine and pale stools. Bone marrow effects don’t explain the hepatobiliary symptoms, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: Iatrogenic skin disease might involve rashes or lesions, but jaundice, dark urine, and light stools point to liver or bile duct issues. These symptoms result from impaired bilirubin metabolism, not cutaneous pathology. This choice doesn’t align with the systemic hepatobiliary symptoms described, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: Drug-induced liver toxicity, such as from acetaminophen or statins, impairs bilirubin metabolism, causing jaundice, dark urine (bilirubinuria), and light stools (reduced bile). Malaise, nausea, and vomiting reflect systemic effects of liver dysfunction. This matches the patient’s symptoms, making it the most likely diagnosis and correct choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L). While furosemide can cause hyponatremia, this value is not concerning. Hypokalemia is a greater risk with furosemide and digoxin, as it potentiates digoxin toxicity, making this choice less critical than potassium.
Choice B reason: Oxygen saturation of 95% is normal (95-100%). Crackles suggest pulmonary edema, but this saturation doesn’t indicate severe hypoxia requiring immediate action. Hypokalemia poses a greater risk with digoxin and furosemide, as it increases toxicity potential, making this choice less concerning.
Choice C reason: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (normal: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) indicates hypokalemia, exacerbated by furosemide’s diuretic effect. In digoxin use, low potassium increases cardiac toxicity risk, causing arrhythmias, especially with an irregular heart rate noted, making this the most concerning value requiring immediate attention.
Choice D reason: A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is normal (70-110 mg/dL fasting). It’s unrelated to digoxin or furosemide’s primary risks (e.g., electrolyte imbalances, arrhythmias). Hypokalemia is a more immediate concern due to its synergistic toxicity with digoxin, making this choice less critical.
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