The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor who has a history of genital herpes. The patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum.
What action should the nurse take in anticipating the plan of care for this patient?
Prepare for a vaginal delivery:.
Administer antiviral medication.
Prepare for a cesarean delivery.
Discharge the patient:
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A (Prepare for a vaginal delivery) is incorrect. Vaginal delivery is generally not recommended for women with active genital herpes lesions present during labor due to the high risk of transmitting the virus to the newborn. This risk is especially high when the mother experiences a primary infection (first outbreak) during the third trimester or has visible lesions at the time of delivery.
Choice B (Administer antiviral medication) is partially correct. While antiviral medications can be helpful in managing and potentially shortening outbreaks, they alone are not enough to prevent transmission during delivery. Antiviral medication can be used in combination with cesarean delivery to further reduce the risk of transmission.
Choice C (Prepare for a cesarean delivery) is correct. A cesarean delivery is the preferred method of delivery for women with active genital herpes lesions present during labor because it significantly reduces the risk of the virus being transmitted to the newborn. This risk can be as high as 50% during vaginal delivery with active lesions, while the risk with cesarean delivery is significantly lower, typically around 1% or less.
Choice D (Discharge the patient) is incorrect. Discharging a patient in active labor with active genital herpes lesions is not a safe or appropriate course of action. The patient needs to be carefully monitored and managed in a healthcare setting to minimize the risk of transmission to the newborn and ensure the safety of both mother and baby.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Drinking one to two alcoholic drinks a few times a week does not typically signal that a woman should not take oral contraceptives.
Choice B rationale
Being slightly overweight and having a difficult time fitting exercise into a schedule does not typically signal that a woman should not take oral contraceptives16.
Choice C rationale
Trying to limit cigarettes to one pack a week does signal that a woman should not take oral contraceptives16. Smoking can increase the risk of serious side effects from oral contraceptives, including blood clots, stroke, or heart attack.
Choice D rationale
Trying to have a boyfriend wear a condom every time they have sex does not typically signal that a woman should not take oral contraceptives16.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A Pap smear is not helpful in identifying ovarian cancer. It is used to detect cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer.
Choice B rationale
While the CA-125 blood test can indicate the presence of ovarian cancer if the levels are elevated, it is not a reliable screening test. This is because high levels of CA-125 can also be caused by common conditions such as endometriosis and pelvic inflammatory disease.
Choice C rationale
Genetic testing for two genes (BRCA1 and BRCA2) can identify an increased risk for developing ovarian cancer, but it does not diagnose the disease itself.
Choice D rationale
Currently, there is no reliable screening test for ovarian cancer. The most effective strategies for early detection are being aware of the symptoms and maintaining regular check-ups with your healthcare provider.
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