The nurse assesses a patient who takes ibuprofen [Advil] on a regular basis. Which finding would indicate a severe adverse effect of ibuprofen therapy?
Jaundice
Bloody emesis
Itching
Dysmenorrhea
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Jaundice indicates liver dysfunction, but ibuprofen rarely causes hepatotoxicity at standard doses. It’s more associated with gastrointestinal issues due to COX-1 inhibition, reducing protective prostaglandins in the stomach lining. While possible with overdose, jaundice is less common than gastrointestinal bleeding, making this choice less likely.
Choice B reason: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, inhibits COX-1, reducing gastric mucosal protection, which can lead to ulcers or gastrointestinal bleeding. Bloody emesis (hematemesis) indicates severe gastrointestinal damage, a well-documented adverse effect requiring immediate intervention, making this the correct choice for a severe ibuprofen-related complication.
Choice C reason: Itching may indicate a mild allergic reaction or skin irritation, not a severe adverse effect of ibuprofen. While possible, it’s less critical than gastrointestinal bleeding, which poses life-threatening risks due to ibuprofen’s impact on gastric mucosa, making this choice less severe and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Dysmenorrhea (painful periods) is a condition ibuprofen treats, not an adverse effect. By inhibiting prostaglandins, ibuprofen reduces uterine contractions and pain. It doesn’t cause dysmenorrhea, making this choice irrelevant as an indicator of a severe adverse effect of ibuprofen therapy.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis requires low PaCO2 (<35 mm Hg) and high pH (>7.45). Here, PaCO2 is 48 mm Hg (high) and HCO3- is 29 mEq/L (high), indicating a metabolic cause with respiratory compensation, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis involves low PaCO2 and high HCO3- with high pH. With PaCO2 at 48 mm Hg (high) and HCO3- at 29 mEq/L, the alkalosis is metabolic, with elevated PaCO2 as compensation, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: pH 7.48 (alkalotic), PaCO2 48 mm Hg (high), and HCO3- 29 mEq/L (high) indicate metabolic alkalosis (high HCO3-), with elevated PaCO2 showing partial respiratory compensation (hypoventilation to retain CO2). This matches partially compensated metabolic alkalosis, making it the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis requires high pH and high HCO3- with normal PaCO2. Here, PaCO2 is 48 mm Hg (high), indicating respiratory compensation, not an uncompensated state. This makes the condition partially compensated, so this choice is less accurate than C.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increasing aspirin dosage without medical guidance risks toxicity, including gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration, as aspirin inhibits COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin production. Prostaglandins mediate pain and inflammation, but excessive inhibition can damage the stomach lining. This approach is unsafe and not recommended for managing menstrual cramps effectively, as it may exacerbate adverse effects without ensuring better pain relief.
Choice B reason: First-generation NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, are more effective for menstrual cramps due to their stronger inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which reduce prostaglandin synthesis responsible for uterine contractions and pain. Unlike aspirin, ibuprofen offers better pain relief with a more favorable dosing profile, making it a suitable alternative for dysmenorrhea management in most patients.
Choice C reason: Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, as it primarily inhibits COX enzymes in the central nervous system, not peripherally. It reduces pain and fever but does not effectively target prostaglandin-mediated inflammation in menstrual cramps. Therefore, it is less effective than NSAIDs like ibuprofen for dysmenorrhea, making it an inappropriate substitute in this context.
Choice D reason: Avoiding COX inhibitors due to Reye’s syndrome risk is unwarranted here, as Reye’s syndrome is primarily associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Menstrual cramps are unrelated to this condition, and COX inhibitors like NSAIDs are standard treatment. This choice is overly restrictive and not clinically justified for managing dysmenorrhea.
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