The nurse explains to a client that an oral antihypoglycemic agents are not effective in Type I diabetes because people with Type I diabetes:

would need so much of an oral antihypoglycemic agent that it would cost too much.

are allergic to oral antihypoglycemic agents.

would have more episodes of hypoglycemia with oral antihypoglycemic agents.

have little or none of their own insulin that can be released.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   The effectiveness of oral antihypoglycemic agents does not depend on dosage amounts that would make them cost-prohibitive. Instead, these medications work by stimulating insulin production or enhancing insulin sensitivity, which is not relevant for Type 1 diabetes.
B.   While some individuals may have allergies to certain medications, this is not the reason oral antihypoglycemic agents are ineffective for those with Type 1 diabetes. The ineffectiveness is not related to allergy but rather to the underlying pathology of the disease.
C.   While it is true that the risk of hypoglycemia exists with all glucose-lowering therapies, this is not the primary reason why oral antihypoglycemics are ineffective in Type 1 diabetes. The use of these agents may increase hypoglycemia risk in a broader context, but the fundamental issue is related to insulin deficiency.
D.   In Type 1 diabetes, the pancreas produces little to no insulin due to autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells. Oral antihypoglycemic agents typically rely on the presence of some endogenous insulin to be effective.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While costovertebral tenderness is significant and indicates kidney involvement, it is a common symptom of acute pyelonephritis and not necessarily a sign of deterioration. Immediate notification may not be warranted unless other concerning symptoms are present.
B. Although back massage may seem comforting, it is not indicated in this scenario. The kidneys are inflamed, and massage could exacerbate pain or discomfort. It does not address the underlying condition or the pain effectively.
C. The prone position is not typically recommended for clients with pyelonephritis. Instead, the client may be more comfortable in a position that does not put pressure on the kidneys, such as sitting up or lying on their back or side. This intervention does not directly address the pain or comfort of the client.
D. Offering an analgesic is the most appropriate action. Pain management is crucial for the comfort of the client, and an analgesic can help alleviate the discomfort associated with costovertebral tenderness. If the physician has prescribed an analgesic, administering it would be in line with promoting comfort and addressing the client’s needs.

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

Volume to administer (mL)=( Desired dose (mcg)/Available concentration (mcg/mL) 100 mcg is in 2 mL, so the concentration is:
100 mcg/2 Ml =50 mcg/mL
Volume to administer =25 mcg/ 50 mcg/mL=0.5mL
So, the nurse will administer 0.5 mL of fentanyl for the correct dose.

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The nurse explains to a client that an oral antihypoglycemic agents are not effective in Type I diabetes because people with Type I diabetes:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 72-year-old client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. The client complains of costovertebral tenderness. What it the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse must give 25 micrograms of fentanyl IVP X 1 dose. Fentanyl is available in an ampule 100 micrograms per 2mL. How many mL will the nurse give for the correct dose? round to the nearest tenth. Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros.

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

The client newly diagnosed with insulin dependent diabetes is to be discharged in the morning and has received no instruction on diabetes. The nurse's teaching priority is to instruct the client in:

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A client with an above the knee amputation asks the nurse why the stump needs to be wrapped with an elastic bandage. The nurse explains that it:

A client with Type 2 diabetes is brought into the emergency room in an unresponsive state. A diagnosis of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is made. The nurse prepares for the administration of which initial therapy?

Your patient is prescribed Solu-Medrol 2 mg/kg/day in four divided doses. The medication is supplied as 10 mg/5 mL. The patient weighs 110 lbs. How many mL's will the nurse administer per dose?

A client's insulin dosage is 16 units of regular insulin in the morning. The client should be taught to expect the insulin peak within: