The nurse has collected the vital signs on a client who has been on bedrest for a week and just returned from physical therapy. See chart:
- Blood Pressure: 122/84 mmHg
- Heart Rate: 108
- Respiratory Rate: 22
- Oxygen Saturation: 96% on room air
- Temperature: 98.0°F
What action should the nurse take?
Document the client's bradycardia.
Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute.
Reassess the vital signs in five minutes.
Notify the provider of the findings.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Documenting bradycardia is incorrect because the client is experiencing tachycardia (HR 108), not bradycardia.
B. Applying oxygen at 2L/min is incorrect because the oxygen saturation is normal (96% on room air). Oxygen therapy is not indicated at this time.
C. Reassess the vital signs in five minutes is correct because the slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate may be due to recent physical activity after prolonged bedrest. It is important to allow the client time to recover and reassess before taking further action.
D. Notifying the provider is incorrect because there is no immediate concern; the elevated HR and RR are expected post-activity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A 3-year-old with fever, rash, and sore throat should be evaluated promptly, but these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency.
B. A 45-year-old man with chest pain and diaphoresis for 1 hour is the priority because these are classic symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or myocardial infarction (MI). Immediate emergency assessment and intervention are required.
C. A 14-year-old girl crying about a possible pregnancy needs emotional support and counseling but does not require immediate emergency intervention.
D. A 20-year-old man with a 3-inch shallow laceration on his leg needs wound care, but his condition is not life-threatening and does not require emergency assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Malignancy can cause abdominal pain, but it does not typically present with acute sharp pain and involuntary guarding.
B. Aneurysms, particularly abdominal aortic aneurysms, may present with a pulsatile mass and deep, dull pain rather than sharp pain and guarding.
C. Hernias can cause pain, but they typically present with a bulging mass that increases with straining, not sharp pain with reflex guarding.
D. Peritonitis is correct because it causes severe abdominal pain, involuntary guarding, and rebound tenderness due to inflammation of the peritoneum. Reflex guarding is a protective mechanism indicating peritoneal irritation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.