The nurse in the Emergency Department (ED) assesses a 17-year-old client exhibiting symptoms of opiate intoxication. Which of the following should be the nurse's priority action?
Open the crash cart.
Administer oxygen via nonrebreather.
Administer naloxone.
Contact the parents.
The Correct Answer is C
C. Administering naloxone is often the priority action for a client exhibiting symptoms of opiate intoxication, especially if they are experiencing significant respiratory depression or unconsciousness. Naloxone is a medication used to rapidly reverse the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression and sedation.
A. Opening the crash cart is not the priority action for a client exhibiting symptoms of opiate intoxication unless the client's condition deteriorates rapidly, leading to a life-threatening emergency such as respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
B. This intervention is important for clients experiencing respiratory depression, hypoxemia, or altered mental status due to opiate overdose. However, it may not be the highest priority action if the client's respiratory status is stable
D. Contacting the client's parents or guardians is important for obtaining medical history, consent for treatment (if applicable), and support. However, it may not be the highest priority action in the immediate management of opiate intoxication.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. This behavior suggests the possibility of suicidal ideation, which is a medical emergency in mental health care. The nurse should assess the client for suicidal thoughts, intentions, and plans, and provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm. It's crucial to address this as a priority to ensure the safety and well- being of the client.
A. Withdrawing from social interactions can be a symptom of depression. However, it may not always be the highest priority intervention
B. This behavior suggests agitation and potential delusional thinking, which can be indicative of a severe depressive episode or a mixed state in bipolar disorder. This however, does not indicate the need for immediate intervention.
C. Non-adherence to prescribed medication, particularly mood stabilizers, can significantly impact the management of bipolar disorder and increase the risk of mood destabilization. However, addressing adherence is not the priority intervention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ginkgo biloba has been reported to have anticoagulant properties and may potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, individuals taking warfarin should exercise caution when using ginkgo supplements and be monitored closely for signs of bleeding or changes in anticoagulant response.
B. Dandelion is not known to directly affect blood clotting or the action of warfarin.
C. Acai berry is a fruit commonly consumed for its potential antioxidant properties and health benefits. There is limited scientific evidence regarding the interaction between acai and warfarin.
D. Zinc supplementation is generally considered safe for most individuals and there is limited evidence to suggest that zinc significantly enhances the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
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