The nurse is assessing a 76-year-old client who has presented with an unintended weight loss of 10 lb over the past 8 weeks.
During the assessment, the nurse learns that the client has ill-fitting dentures and a limited intake of high-fiber foods.
What other health problem is the client at risk to develop?
Infection.
Deficient fluid volume.
Excessive intake of convenience foods.
Constipation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Infection is not directly related to weight loss, ill-fitting dentures, or limited fiber intake. The primary risks are more connected to gastrointestinal function rather than infections. While malnutrition can affect immune response, infection risk isn’t the primary concern here.
Choice B rationale
Deficient fluid volume is not a direct consequence of weight loss or dietary habits related to ill-fitting dentures. While fluid intake should be monitored, it is not the most immediate risk associated with these symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Excessive intake of convenience foods might contribute to poor nutritional status and unintended weight loss, but it is not the primary risk. The client's condition more directly influences gastrointestinal health rather than dietary habits.
Choice D rationale
Constipation is a significant risk due to limited intake of high-fiber foods. Fiber is crucial for promoting bowel movements and preventing constipation. Weight loss and ill-fitting dentures may further reduce the client's dietary fiber intake, increasing the likelihood of constipation
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intravenous phenobarbital can be used to treat status epilepticus, but it is not the first-line drug due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines. Rapid intervention is critical in status epilepticus, and phenobarbital is generally reserved for refractory cases.
Choice B rationale
Oral phenytoin is used for long-term control of seizures but is not effective for immediate cessation of status epilepticus. It takes longer to reach therapeutic levels and is not suitable for acute management.
Choice C rationale
Intravenous diazepam is a benzodiazepine with a rapid onset of action, making it effective in stopping seizures immediately. It enhances GABA activity, which has an inhibitory effect on neuronal firing, providing quick control of status epilepticus. This rapid effect is crucial for minimizing neuronal damage and other complications.
Choice D rationale
Oral lorazepam is effective for long-term management of seizures but is not appropriate for immediate treatment of status epilepticus. The oral route delays absorption and onset of action, making it unsuitable for acute seizure control. .
Correct Answer is ["D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Exercise is important but should be done in a well-lit, comfortable environment. Exercising in a dark room is not specifically beneficial for migraine management and may not address trigger factors effectively.
Choice B rationale
Adequate sleep is crucial for migraine management. Advising to sleep no more than 5 hours at a time is incorrect; sufficient rest is necessary to prevent migraines.
Choice C rationale
St. John's Wort is commonly used for depression and anxiety but has no proven efficacy for migraine management. It may also interact with other medications.
Choice D rationale
Keeping a food diary helps identify dietary triggers that can lead to migraines. Tracking food intake can reveal patterns and specific triggers to avoid.
Choice E rationale
Maintaining a headache diary is important for tracking migraine frequency, duration, and potential triggers. It helps in managing and understanding the condition better.
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