The nurse is caring for a client who has thrombocytopenia.
Which of the following will the nurse administer for this disorder?

Corticosteroid.

Diphenhydramine.

Desmopressin (DDAVP).

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Corticosteroids are used in thrombocytopenia because they suppress the immune response, particularly in immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). They reduce platelet destruction by inhibiting autoantibody formation and increasing platelet lifespan. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 400,000/µL. Thrombocytopenia occurs when platelets drop below 150,000/µL, increasing bleeding risk. Corticosteroids can also decrease capillary permeability, minimizing petechiae and ecchymoses.

Choice B rationale

Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, is used for allergic reactions but has no role in treating thrombocytopenia. It does not address the underlying immune or hematologic causes of low platelet counts. Its primary actions include H1 receptor antagonism, reducing histamine-mediated symptoms like itching and swelling. However, it lacks immunosuppressive or hematologic-stimulating effects essential for managing thrombocytopenia.

Choice C rationale

Desmopressin (DDAVP) is a synthetic antidiuretic hormone analog used for certain bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease or mild hemophilia A. It increases factor VIII and von Willebrand factor levels, improving clotting. However, it is not indicated for thrombocytopenia as it does not address platelet count deficiencies or immune-mediated platelet destruction.

Choice D rationale

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is a thiazide diuretic used for hypertension and edema. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule, promoting diuresis. HCTZ has no effect on platelet counts or immune mechanisms and is not used in thrombocytopenia. Its side effects, like electrolyte imbalances, may complicate patient management.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Edema of the lower extremities suggests right-sided heart failure, not left ventricular failure. Fluid backs up into systemic circulation in right-sided failure, while left-sided failure primarily affects pulmonary circulation. Differentiating between these conditions is essential for targeted management.

Choice B rationale

Pulmonary crackles result from fluid accumulation in alveoli due to left ventricular failure, where decreased cardiac output causes blood to back up into pulmonary vasculature. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion or edema. Prompt identification aids in early intervention. Normal respiratory assessment excludes crackles.

Choice C rationale

Ascites is more indicative of chronic right-sided heart failure or liver disease, not acute left ventricular failure. Ascites results from systemic venous congestion, which is less common in isolated left-sided heart failure. Differentiating causes helps refine diagnostic focus.

Choice D rationale

Jugular vein distention is associated with elevated central venous pressure, typical of right-sided heart failure or combined heart failure. It does not specifically characterize left ventricular failure. Accurate recognition of findings ensures precise diagnosis and management.

A. A 24-year-old female who is 6 months pregnant and is taking prescribed prenatal vitamins. B. A 42-year-old male with a history of hypertension who exercises three times a week. C. A 37-year-old male client who works 16 hours a day and consumes a high carbohydrate diet. D. A 20-year-old female client with a history of menorrhagia and consumes a strict vegetarian diet.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Pregnant women may experience increased iron demands due to expanded blood volume and fetal requirements. However, prescribed prenatal vitamins typically contain sufficient iron to prevent deficiency. Compliance with supplementation reduces the risk for anemia, and pregnancy itself is not an independent factor without nutritional inadequacy. Other physiological conditions, such as menorrhagia or dietary restrictions, can significantly elevate risk factors for iron deficiency anemia.

Choice B rationale

Hypertension does not inherently increase the risk of iron deficiency anemia. Exercise three times a week is unlikely to create significant hematological challenges unless combined with conditions like poor dietary intake or chronic illness. Physical activity does not deplete iron stores unless excessive or accompanied by inappropriate nutrition. This client does not exhibit risk factors as critical as menorrhagia or dietary restrictions for anemia development.

Choice C rationale

Working long hours and consuming a high-carbohydrate diet might affect overall health, but these factors do not directly relate to iron absorption or blood loss. While poor nutritional habits can lead to deficiencies, high carbohydrate intake does not necessarily deplete iron reserves. A vegetarian or restrictive diet lacking iron-rich foods poses a greater risk for developing anemia than carbohydrate consumption alone.

Choice D rationale

Menorrhagia results in excessive blood loss during menstruation, which can deplete iron stores and lead to anemia. A strict vegetarian diet often lacks heme iron, which is more readily absorbed compared to non-heme iron from plant sources. Together, these factors create a dual risk of iron deficiency, emphasizing why this client is the most likely among the options to develop anemia. Nutritional counseling and supplementation are key preventive measures.

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The nurse is caring for a client who has thrombocytopenia.Which of the following will the nurse administer for this disorder?

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The nurse is caring for a client who has thrombocytopenia.
Which of the following will the nurse administer for this disorder?