The nurse is discharging a client newly diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which medications should be included in the discharge planning? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Albuterol
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Tiotropium
Rifampin
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
Choice A reason: Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to treat conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not typically used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB). TB treatment focuses on antibiotics that target the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.
Choice B reason: Isoniazid is one of the primary medications used in the treatment of tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are essential components of the bacterial cell wall. Isoniazid is usually part of the initial treatment regimen for TB and is taken for several months to ensure the complete eradication of the bacteria.
Choice C reason: Pyrazinamide is another key medication in the treatment of tuberculosis. It is particularly effective during the initial phase of treatment and helps to reduce the duration of therapy. Pyrazinamide works by disrupting the bacterial cell membrane metabolism and transport functions.
Choice D reason: Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator used to manage COPD. It is not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. The focus of TB treatment is on antibiotics that specifically target the TB bacteria.
Choice E reason: Rifampin is a critical antibiotic in the treatment of tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting the RNA synthesis of the bacteria, effectively killing the TB bacteria. Rifampin is usually taken in combination with other TB medications to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains of the bacteria.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Maintaining adequate oxygenation is the primary goal for a client with impaired gas exchange due to an asthma exacerbation. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method to monitor the oxygen saturation of a patient’s blood, and values above 94% indicate sufficient oxygenation.
Choice A reason:
The client will demonstrate decreased episodes of coughing at night is important but not the priority goal. While reducing coughing can improve comfort and sleep quality, it does not directly address the critical issue of impaired gas exchange. The primary concern in an asthma exacerbation is ensuring that the client maintains adequate oxygen levels.
Choice B reason:
The client’s pulse oximetry values will remain above 94% on room air for the majority of the time is the priority goal. This goal directly addresses the issue of impaired gas exchange by ensuring that the client maintains adequate oxygenation. Pulse oximetry values above 94% indicate that the client’s blood is sufficiently oxygenated, which is crucial for preventing hypoxemia and ensuring that the body’s tissues receive enough oxygen to function properly.
Choice C reason:
The client’s breath sounds will only have slight wheezing by discharge is a relevant goal but not the priority. While reducing wheezing is an indicator of improved airway function, it is not as directly measurable or critical as maintaining adequate oxygen saturation. Wheezing can persist even when oxygen levels are adequate, so it is not the most reliable indicator of improved gas exchange.
Choice D reason:
The client will correctly demonstrate the use of a peak flow meter is an important educational goal but not the priority in an acute setting. Proper use of a peak flow meter can help the client monitor their asthma and prevent future exacerbations, but it does not directly address the immediate issue of impaired gas exchange. The priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to ensure that the client is adequately oxygenated.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Have a pulse oximetry reading of 95% or greater by discharge: While maintaining a pulse oximetry reading of 95% or greater is important, it may not fully address the client’s activity intolerance. Pulse oximetry measures the oxygen saturation in the blood, and normal readings typically range from 95% to 100%. However, achieving this reading alone does not ensure that the client can perform activities without experiencing dyspnea or fatigue.
Choice B reason:
Exhibit a respiratory rate of 12-20/minute by discharge: A normal respiratory rate for adults is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. While this is a good indicator of respiratory function, it does not directly address the client’s ability to perform self-care activities without dyspnea. The goal should focus on the client’s functional ability rather than just physiological parameters.
Choice C reason:
Perform self-care activity without dyspnea by discharge: This outcome directly addresses the client’s activity intolerance. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a significant symptom that affects the client’s ability to perform daily activities. By setting a goal for the client to perform self-care activities without dyspnea, the care plan focuses on improving the client’s functional status and quality of life.
Choice D reason:
Have clear breath sounds bilaterally by discharge: Clear breath sounds are an important indicator of improved lung function and resolution of pneumonia. However, this outcome does not specifically address the client’s activity intolerance. While clear breath sounds are desirable, the primary goal should be to ensure the client can perform activities without experiencing dyspnea.

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