The nurse is explaining the underlying cause of bruising with a client who is recently diagnosed with acute leukemia. Which pathophysiology is a result of the myeloblastic dysfunction of leukemia?
Oxyhemoglobin provides less oxygen to tissues.
Insufficient platelets delay the clotting process.
Phagocytic cells are inadequate in fighting infection.
Lack of iron causes hypochromic blood cells.
The Correct Answer is B
Acute leukemia, including acute myeloid leukemia (AML), involves the proliferation of abnormal myeloblasts (immature white blood cells) in the bone marrow, leading to decreased production of normal blood cells. Here's the breakdown of the pathophysiology contributing to bruising in acute leukemia:
A) Oxyhemoglobin provides less oxygen to tissues:
Oxyhemoglobin refers to hemoglobin bound to oxygen, and its role is in oxygen transport, not in the process of bruising. Therefore, this option is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia.
B) Insufficient platelets delay the clotting process:
Correct. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is a common complication of acute leukemia due to the replacement of normal bone marrow cells with leukemia cells, leading to inadequate production of platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in hemostasis and clot formation. Insufficient platelets result in delayed clotting, leading to easy bruising and bleeding tendencies in patients with acute leukemia.
C) Phagocytic cells are inadequate in fighting infection:
Leukopenia, or low white blood cell count, can occur in acute leukemia due to suppression of normal hematopoiesis by leukemia cells in the bone marrow. While leukopenia predisposes patients to infections due to impaired immune function, it is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising.
D) Lack of iron causes hypochromic blood cells:
Iron deficiency anemia can result in hypochromic red blood cells, but this is not typically associated with the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia. Anemia may contribute to other symptoms such as fatigue and pallor, but bruising primarily results from thrombocytopenia-induced clotting abnormalities.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) The usual types of reactions are mediated by antibodies:
Correct. Types I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibodies (IgE, IgG, or IgM) that bind to antigens and trigger immune responses. In contrast, Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are T-cell mediated and do not involve antibodies.
B) B-lymphocytes produce the offending substances:
This statement is incorrect. B-lymphocytes are involved in antibody-mediated immune responses (types I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions), not Type IV hypersensitivity reactions, which are primarily mediated by T-lymphocytes.
C) They typically occur with the first exposure to an antigen:
This statement is incorrect. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions usually require sensitization upon initial exposure to an antigen, and subsequent exposures elicit the delayed hypersensitivity response. This is similar to types I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions, which also involve sensitization upon initial exposure.
D) Delayed reactions are characterized by cytokine release:
This statement is partially correct. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by a delayed onset (typically 24 to 72 hours after exposure) and involve the release of cytokines from activated T-lymphocytes, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. However, other types of hypersensitivity reactions may also involve cytokine release, so this feature alone does not differentiate Type IV from other types of reactions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Nerve degeneration due to chronic gastric reflux:
Nerve degeneration due to chronic gastric reflux may lead to conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or esophagitis, but it is not directly related to the clinical presentation of intestinal obstruction. Symptoms of GERD or esophagitis typically include heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia rather than severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.
B) Volvulus that occurred during an appendectomy:
Correct. Volvulus refers to the twisting of a segment of the intestine around its mesentery, leading to obstruction of the bowel lumen and compromising blood flow to the affected area. In this scenario, the client's clinical presentation of severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention is consistent with symptoms of intestinal obstruction, which can occur secondary to volvulus. Volvulus may result from various factors, including prior abdominal surgeries, such as an appendectomy, leading to abnormal positioning or adhesions within the abdomen.
C) Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents:
Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents can cause symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing, but it is not typically associated with severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention characteristic of intestinal obstruction.
D) A history of having Helicobacter pylori infection:
Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with conditions such as peptic ulcer disease and gastritis, but it is not directly related to the clinical presentation of intestinal obstruction. Symptoms of H. pylori infection may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, but they are not typically colicky and severe as those seen in intestinal obstruction.
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