The nurse prepares to administer digoxin 0.125 mg PO to a client who has chronic heart failure. The laboratory report reveals a digoxin level of 2.5 mg/mL. Which nursing action is most appropriate at this time?
Assess the apical pulse and if above 60 beats/minute administer the dose.
Administer 0.25 mcg and potassium 20 mEq IV.
Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider of the digoxin level.
Administer the digoxin with a potassium supplement.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Assessing the apical pulse is not enough to determine if the client is safe to receive digoxin. The client's digoxin level is already above the therapeutic range of 0.5 to 2 ng/mL¹² and giving another dose could increase the risk of toxicity and arrhythmias.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Administering 0.25 mcg of digoxin and potassium 20 mEq IV is not appropriate for this client. The client does not need more digoxin or potassium, as both could worsen the client's condition. Potassium levels should be monitored closely in clients taking digoxin, as low or high levels can affect the drug's action and toxicity³.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider of the digoxin level is the most appropriate action for this client. The client's digoxin level is dangerously high and could cause serious adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, vision changes, bradycardia, and cardiac arrest³. The healthcare provider may order to stop digoxin temporarily, adjust the dose, or prescribe an antidote such as digoxin immune fab⁴.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Administering the digoxin with a potassium supplement is not advisable for this client. The client's digoxin level is already too high and adding potassium could increase the risk of hyperkalemia, which can impair the heart's electrical activity and lead to cardiac arrest³. Potassium supplements should only be given to clients with digoxin-induced hypokalemia, and only under the supervision of the healthcare provider³..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer. Stool for occult blood is a diagnostic test that detects the presence of hidden blood in the feces. This can indicate bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, which is the most common cause of chronic iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is a condition where the body does not have enough iron to produce hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the red blood cells.
Choice B reason: Vitamin B12 level is not the diagnostic test that is used to detect the most common cause of chronic iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin B12 level is a blood test that measures the amount of vitamin B12 in the body. Vitamin B12 is a nutrient that is essential for the production of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause pernicious anemia, a type of megaloblastic anemia where the red blood cells are large and immature.
Choice C reason: Schilling's test is not the diagnostic test that is used to detect the most common cause of chronic iron deficiency anemia. Schilling's test is a urine test that evaluates the absorption of vitamin B12 in the body. It involves giving the client an oral dose of radioactive vitamin B12 and an intramuscular injection of non-radioactive vitamin B12. The urine is then collected and measured for the amount of radioactive vitamin B12. Schilling's test can help diagnose pernicious anemia and other causes of vitamin B12 malabsorption.
Choice D reason: Bone marrow aspiration study is not the diagnostic test that is used to detect the most common cause of chronic iron deficiency anemia. Bone marrow aspiration study is a procedure that involves taking a sample of bone marrow from the hip or sternum and examining it under a microscope. Bone marrow is the soft tissue inside the bones that produces blood cells. Bone marrow aspiration study can help diagnose various blood disorders, such as leukemia, lymphoma, and aplastic anemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: I will call dietary to bring you breakfast is not the best response by the nurse. This response may imply that the nurse is willing to compromise the test results or the client's safety by allowing them to eat before the test. The nurse should explain the rationale for fasting and offer the client some water or ice chips if allowed.
Choice B reason: Food may interact with the dye that is used for the test is not the best response by the nurse. This response may be partially true, but it is not specific or clear enough to justify the need for fasting. The nurse should explain that food can affect the absorption and distribution of the radioactive tracer that is injected into the bloodstream for the test, and that eating can also interfere with the quality of the images.
Choice C reason: I will ask the health care provider if the test can be rescheduled is not the best response by the nurse. This response may suggest that the nurse is not confident or knowledgeable about the test protocol or the client's condition. The nurse should explain the importance and urgency of the test and reassure the client that they will be able to eat after the test is done.
Choice D reason: The procedure is usually completed on an empty stomach is the best response by the nurse. This response is accurate and concise, and it informs the client of the standard preparation for the test. The nurse should also provide more details about the test procedure and the expected duration, and answer any questions or concerns that the client may have.
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