The nurse prepares to administer digoxin 0.125 mg PO to a client who has chronic heart failure. The laboratory report reveals a digoxin level of 2.5 mg/mL. Which nursing action is most appropriate at this time?
Assess the apical pulse and if above 60 beats/minute administer the dose.
Administer 0.25 mcg and potassium 20 mEq IV.
Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider of the digoxin level.
Administer the digoxin with a potassium supplement.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Assessing the apical pulse is not enough to determine if the client is safe to receive digoxin. The client's digoxin level is already above the therapeutic range of 0.5 to 2 ng/mL¹² and giving another dose could increase the risk of toxicity and arrhythmias.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Administering 0.25 mcg of digoxin and potassium 20 mEq IV is not appropriate for this client. The client does not need more digoxin or potassium, as both could worsen the client's condition. Potassium levels should be monitored closely in clients taking digoxin, as low or high levels can affect the drug's action and toxicity³.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider of the digoxin level is the most appropriate action for this client. The client's digoxin level is dangerously high and could cause serious adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, vision changes, bradycardia, and cardiac arrest³. The healthcare provider may order to stop digoxin temporarily, adjust the dose, or prescribe an antidote such as digoxin immune fab⁴.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Administering the digoxin with a potassium supplement is not advisable for this client. The client's digoxin level is already too high and adding potassium could increase the risk of hyperkalemia, which can impair the heart's electrical activity and lead to cardiac arrest³. Potassium supplements should only be given to clients with digoxin-induced hypokalemia, and only under the supervision of the healthcare provider³..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increasing the SA to AV node conduction time is not the goal of using diltiazem for variant angina. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows down the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart, but this is not the main mechanism of action for relieving variant angina. Variant angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries that reduce blood flow to the heart muscle.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. Decreasing coronary artery spasm is the goal of using diltiazem for variant angina. Diltiazem relaxes the smooth muscle of the coronary arteries and prevents them from contracting. This improves the blood supply to the heart and reduces the pain and ischemia associated with variant angina.
Choice C reason: Diltiazem does not cause hyperexcitability in the myocardium. This is a false statement. Diltiazem has the opposite effect of reducing the contractility and excitability of the heart muscle. This lowers the oxygen demand of the heart and helps prevent anginal attacks.
Choice D reason: Increasing the heart rate is not the goal of using diltiazem for variant angina. Diltiazem actually decreases the heart rate by blocking the calcium channels in the sinoatrial node and the atrioventricular node. This reduces the workload of the heart and the oxygen consumption. A high heart rate can worsen angina by increasing the oxygen demand of the heart.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the best answer. Respiratory rate and depth can indicate the client's oxygenation and ventilation, but not necessarily their fluid status. The client may have normal or increased respiratory rate and depth due to dehydration, acidosis, or anxiety, but this does not reflect their fluid volume or distribution. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate and depth, but also assess other parameters of fluid status.
Choice B reason: This is not the best answer. Rectal temperature can indicate the client's core body temperature, but not necessarily their fluid status. The client may have normal or elevated rectal temperature due to infection, inflammation, or dehydration, but this does not reflect their fluid volume or distribution. The nurse should monitor the client's rectal temperature, but also assess other parameters of fluid status.
Choice C reason: This is the best answer. Blood pressure lying, sitting and standing can indicate the client's fluid status and vascular tone. The client may have low blood pressure due to fluid loss, hypovolemia, or vasodilation, and this can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when changing positions. The nurse should measure the client's blood pressure in different positions and observe for signs of orthostatic hypotension, such as dizziness, fainting, or blurred vision.
Choice D reason: This is not the best answer. Pulse oximetry reading at rest can indicate the client's oxygen saturation, but not necessarily their fluid status. The client may have normal or decreased pulse oximetry reading due to hypoxia, anemia, or poor peripheral perfusion, but this does not reflect their fluid volume or distribution. The nurse should monitor the client's pulse oximetry reading, but also assess other parameters of fluid status.
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