The nurse's approach to a client with neurotic vs. psychotic behavior is different mainly because clients with neurotic behavior.
experience no loss of contact with reality.
never have mood or personality changes.
have conflict but only use adaptive defense mechanisms to cope.
are always aware that their behaviors are maladaptive.
The Correct Answer is A
a. experience no loss of contact with reality. The key difference is reality testing. Clients with neurosis (anxiety disorders, OCD) generally maintain contact with reality, even though their thoughts or behaviours might be distressing. Clients with psychosis (schizophrenia) experience a break with reality, such as hallucinations or delusions.
b. Never have mood or personality changes. Not true. Mood and personality changes can occur in both neurosis and psychosis.
c. Have conflict but only use adaptive defence mechanisms to cope. Défense mechanisms are used by everyone to cope with anxiety, but in neurosis, they might be less healthy or maladaptive.
d. Are always aware that their behaviours are maladaptive. Not necessarily. Clients with neurosis might have limited insight into how their behaviours affect themselves or others.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. "I may consider dating you once you have fully recovered." This response, while seemingly kind, is unprofessional. It creates a false sense of hope for the client and blurs the professional line.
b. "This is a professional relationship, and we need to be clear on that." This is a direct and professional way to set boundaries. It reminds the client of the nature of the relationship and avoids any misunderstanding.
c. "It's against hospital policy for me to date clients." While some hospitals might have such policies, this isn't always the case. A broader and more direct response like option b is preferable.
d. "I'm sorry, but I'm married and not interested in dating." This response might be true, but it focuses on the nurse's personal life and deflects from the professional aspect. Option b is more appropriate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. 1030-1130: Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that typically peaks in 1-2 hours. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur during the peak action time.
b. 1130-1230: This is beyond the typical peak action time for insulin aspart, making hypoglycemia less likely during this interval.
c. 1000: This falls within the typical peak action time of 1-2 hours for insulin aspart, making hypoglycemia possible but the interval is slightly too narrow to capture the full peak effect.
d. 0800-0830: Insulin aspart begins to act within 10-20 minutes, but hypoglycemia typically does not occur this soon after administration unless there is an issue with meal timing or dosage.
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