The primary clinical manifestation of scabies is:
Maceration
Edema
Itching
Severe pain
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as maceration is not a clinical manifestation of scabies, but a condition of softening and breaking down of the skin due to prolonged exposure to moisture. Maceration can occur in areas where the skin folds or rubs together, such as the groin, armpits, or under the breasts.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as edema is not a clinical manifestation of scabies, but a condition of swelling due to excess fluid accumulation in the tissues. Edema can occur in various parts of the body, such as the legs, feet, hands, or face, due to various causes, such as heart failure, kidney disease, or allergic reactions.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as itching is the primary clinical manifestation of scabies, a contagious skin infection caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei. The mite burrows into the skin and lays eggs, causing an intense inflammatory response and pruritus. The itching is usually worse at night and affects the areas between the fingers, wrists, elbows, armpits, waist, buttocks, and genitals.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as severe pain is not a clinical manifestation of scabies, but a subjective sensation of physical discomfort or distress. Pain can occur in various parts of the body due to various causes, such as injury, inflammation, infection, or disease. Pain can be acute or chronic, and can be rated on a scale of 0 to 10.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as ibuprofen is not recommended for infants under 6 months of age due to the risk of kidney damage and bleeding. Cool wet sponges can also cause shivering and increase the body temperature. The nurse should advise the father to avoid these methods and seek medical attention.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as acetaminophen is not enough to treat a high fever in a 2-month-old infant. The nurse should also inform the father that the normal dose of acetaminophen for infants is 10 to 15 mg/kg every 4 to 6 hours, and that he should not exceed 5 doses in 24 hours. The nurse should urge the father to take the infant to the urgent care clinic as soon as possible.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as a fever of 38.5°C (101.3°F) or higher in an infant under 3 months of age is considered a medical emergency and requires immediate evaluation and treatment. The nurse should explain to the father that a high fever in a young infant can indicate a serious infection, such as meningitis, sepsis, or urinary tract infection, and that the infant needs to be seen by a doctor right away.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as putting the infant in a cool bath can cause hypothermia and shock. The nurse should advise the father to avoid this method and seek medical attention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because an axillary temperature of 37.3° C is within the normal range for a 10-month-old child. It does not indicate any infection or complication after the surgery.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because mild abdominal pain is expected after the surgery and can be managed with analgesics. It does not require immediate notification to the MD.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because a BP of 100/54 is normal for a 10-month-old child. It does not indicate any shock or hemorrhage after the surgery.
Choice D reason: This is correct because currant jelly stools, which are stools mixed with blood and mucus, are a sign of intussusception, which is a telescoping of the bowel that causes obstruction and inflammation. Currant jelly stools after the surgery indicate that the intussusception has recurred and requires immediate intervention. The nurse should notify the MD and prepare the child for another surgery.
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