The RN is serving as preceptor to a new graduate nurse who has recently passed the RN licensure (NCLEX®) examination. The new nurse has only been on the unit for 2 days. Which patient should be assigned to the new graduate nurse?
A 60-year-old patient with diabetes who has cellulitis of the left ankle.
A 50-year-old patient with diabetes just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after a below-knee amputation.
A 72-year-old patient with diabetes with diabetic ketoacidosis who is receiving IV insulin.
A 70-year-old patient with diabetes who is showing signs of hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Cellulitis management typically involves wound care, antibiotics, and monitoring. It's a suitable assignment for a new graduate nurse to begin learning about wound management and diabetic care.
Choice B rationale: Post-operative care for an amputation requires experience in assessing and managing post-surgical complications, which might not be suitable for a new graduate nurse.
Choice C rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis management involves complex insulin therapy and critical care, which might be overwhelming for a new graduate nurse.
Choice D rationale: While hyperglycemia requires monitoring and intervention, the cause and severity need to be determined before assigning this patient to a new
graduate nurse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Rotating the neck to one side while observing the eyes moving to the opposite side is a procedure for testing for oculocephalic reflex or doll's eye
phenomenon, which indicates brainstem function.
Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Kernig's sign is a clinical sign that indicates meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. To test for Kernig's sign, the nurse should flex the patient's hip to 90 degrees and then attempt to extend the knee. A positive Kernig's sign is when the patient
experiences pain in the lower back or hamstring, resists knee extension, or involuntarily flexes the opposite leg.
Choice C rationale: Stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the patient's foot and observing for dorsiflexion of the big toe is a procedure for testing for Babinski's sign, which indicates upper motor neuron lesion or damage.
Choice D rationale: Passively flexing the patient's neck forward and observing for hip and knee flexion is a procedure for testing for Brudzinski's sign, which also indicates meningitis.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Hormone therapy (HT) is used to treat menopausal symptoms, not PID.
Choice B rationale: Irregularities in the menstrual cycle is not a common complications of PID.
Choice C rationale: Changes in secondary sex characteristics is not a common complications of PID.
Choice D rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs that can cause scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus. This can lead to ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, and infertility.
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