What does teratogenic refer to?

endangering the elderly

causing birth defects in the unborn fetus

cancer-causing

endangering the health of the mother

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Endangering the elderly: Teratogenicity does not refer to endangering the elderly. It is related to effects on the fetus.

B. Causing birth defects in the unborn fetus: Teratogenic substances are those that can cause birth defects when a pregnant woman is exposed to them.

C. Cancer-causing: Substances that cause cancer are called carcinogens, not teratogens.

D. Endangering the health of the mother: While some teratogens can also affect the mother, the term specifically refers to causing birth defects in the fetus.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "This medication will replace vitamins and minerals that may be lost due to bleeding during surgery." Cefazolin is an antibiotic, not a replacement for vitamins and minerals. This statement is incorrect.

B. "This is a palliative medication to help ease the pain from surgery."Cefazolin is not a palliative medication; it is an antibiotic used to prevent infection, not to relieve pain.

C. "This medication will help the surgeon identify areas of bone destruction due to arthritis." Cefazolin does not aid in the identification of bone destruction. It is an antibiotic, not a diagnostic tool.

D. "This antibiotic is given as a prophylactic to help reduce the risk of infection after surgery."
This statement is correct. Cefazolin is given prophylactically to reduce the risk of postoperative infection.

A. Ritalin B. cocaine C. ketamine D. methaqualone E. hydrocodone

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A. Ritalin (methylphenidate) is a Schedule II drug, indicating it has a high potential for abuse and dependence, despite its accepted medical use for treating ADHD.

B. Cocaine is classified as a Schedule II drug because it has a high potential for abuse but also has accepted medical uses, such as in certain surgical procedures as a local anesthetic.

C. Ketamine is classified as a Schedule III drug. It has a lower potential for abuse compared to Schedule II substances but is still controlled.

D. Methaqualone is a Schedule I drug, indicating it has no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse.

E. Hydrocodone, particularly in combination with other substances, is classified as a Schedule II drug due to its high potential for abuse and dependence.

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What does teratogenic refer to?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

While caring for a patient scheduled for knee replacement surgery, the nurse provides cefazolin(antibiotic) as ordered 30 minutes preoperatively. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following are considered Schedule II drugs by the DEA? select all that apply

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

What does teratogenic refer to?

A patient is scheduled for a diagnostic test the following day and to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) after midnight. What is the best nursing action?

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