What is the main neurotransmitter abnormality in Tourette's?
Dopamine
Serotonin
Glutamate
GABA
The Correct Answer is A
A. Dopamine. Tourette’s syndrome is primarily associated with dopamine dysregulation, particularly increased dopamine activity in the basal ganglia. This overactivity leads to excessive, involuntary motor and vocal tics. Dopamine-blocking medications, such as antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol, risperidone), can help reduce tic severity.
B. Serotonin. While serotonin plays a role in mood regulation and impulse control, it is not the primary neurotransmitter involved in Tourette’s. However, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be used to treat co-occurring obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and anxiety symptoms in Tourette’s patients.
C. Glutamate is the brain’s primary excitatory neurotransmitter, involved in learning and memory. While some research suggests glutamate imbalances may contribute to tic severity and compulsive behaviors, dopamine remains the key neurotransmitter in Tourette’s pathology.
D. GABA is the brain’s primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, responsible for reducing neural excitability. Though impaired GABAergic inhibition may contribute to tic generation, the main abnormality in Tourette’s involves dopamine overactivity in the basal ganglia and cortico-striatal-thalamo-cortical circuits.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Recurrent eye plucking. There is no recognized disorder specifically involving eye plucking. However, repetitive behaviors targeting the eyes may be seen in severe body-focused repetitive behaviors (BFRBs) or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)-related conditions.
B. Recurrent lip biting. While some individuals engage in compulsive lip biting, this behavior is not classified under excoriation disorder but may be part of body-focused repetitive behaviors (BFRBs) or impulse control disorders.
C. Recurrent skin picking. Excoriation disorder (dermatillomania) is a mental health condition characterized by compulsive skin picking, leading to tissue damage, infections, and scarring. It is classified under obsessive-compulsive and related disorders (OCRDs) in the DSM-5 and is often associated with anxiety, stress, or perfectionism.
D. Recurrent hair pulling. Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder) is a separate condition from excoriation disorder, involving compulsive hair pulling that results in noticeable hair loss. It is also classified under obsessive-compulsive and related disorders in the DSM-5.
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