What is the result of a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?
Nonreactive
Reactive
Positive
Negative
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Nonreactive is not the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR does not show adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A nonreactive NST means that the FHR does not increase by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia (low oxygen) or fetal sleep.
Choice B reason: Reactive is the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR shows adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A reactive NST means that the FHR increases by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period. A reactive NST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and healthy.
Choice C reason: Positive is not the correct result, as it is not used to describe the NST. Positive is a term used for the contraction stress test (CST), which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A positive CST means that the FHR shows late decelerations (decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends) with at least 50% of the contractions. A positive CST indicates uteroplacental insufficiency (a condition where the placenta does not deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus) and fetal distress.
Choice D reason: Negative is not the correct result, as it is also not used to describe the NST. Negative is another term used for the CST, which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A negative CST means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. A negative CST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a donor embryo is not used in IVF-ET. A donor embryo is an embryo that was created from another couple's gametes and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the couple's own gametes to create an embryo.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because it is dismissive and unprofessional. The nurse should respect the husband's curiosity and provide accurate and clear information about the procedure. The nurse should also address any concerns or questions that the couple may have.
Choice C reason: This is correct because it is a concise and accurate description of the IVF-ET procedure. The nurse explains the main steps and the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because donor sperm is not used in IVF-ET. Donor sperm is sperm that was obtained from another man and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the husband's own sperm to fertilize the wife's eggs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
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