What are the maternal and neonatal risks associated with gestational diabetes mellitus?
Maternal placenta previa and fetal prematurity.
Maternal hyperemesis and neonatal low birth weight.
Maternal premature rupture of membranes and neonatal sepsis.
Maternal preeclampsia and fetal macrosomia.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Maternal placenta previa is not a common complication of gestational diabetes mellitus. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers the cervix, which can cause bleeding and preterm labor. The risk factors for placenta previa include previous cesarean delivery, multiple pregnancy, advanced maternal age, and smoking.
Choice B reason: Maternal hyperemesis and neonatal low birth weight are not directly related to gestational diabetes mellitus. Hyperemesis is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can cause dehydration and weight loss. The causes of hyperemesis are not well understood, but it may be influenced by hormonal changes, genetic factors, and psychological factors². Neonatal low birth weight is defined as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams, which can be caused by many factors, such as prematurity, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal infection, and maternal malnutrition.
Choice C reason: Maternal premature rupture of membranes and neonatal sepsis are not specific to gestational diabetes mellitus. Premature rupture of membranes is a condition in which the amniotic sac breaks before labor begins, which can increase the risk of infection and preterm delivery. The causes of premature rupture of membranes are not clear, but some possible factors include infection, inflammation, stress, and trauma. Neonatal sepsis is a life-threatening infection in newborns, which can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. The risk factors for neonatal sepsis include prematurity, low birth weight, maternal infection, and invasive procedures⁵.
Choice D reason: Maternal preeclampsia and fetal macrosomia are the most common and serious complications of gestational diabetes mellitus. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, which can lead to organ damage, seizures, and death. The exact cause of preeclampsia is unknown, but it may be related to abnormal placental development, immune system dysfunction, and genetic factors⁶. Fetal macrosomia is a condition in which the baby is larger than normal, usually weighing more than 4,000 grams at birth. This can cause difficulties during labor and delivery, such as shoulder dystocia, birth trauma, and cesarean section. The main cause of fetal macrosomia is excessive maternal glucose, which stimulates fetal insulin production and growth.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.
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