Which of the following is not a sign of a basilar skull fracture?
Hyperglycemia
Raccoon eyes
Battle’s sign
Positive halo sign test result
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Hyperglycemia is not a sign of a basilar skull fracture. It may occur in critical illness due to stress responses or diabetes but is not directly linked to skull fractures. Basilar skull fractures cause physical signs like cerebrospinal fluid leakage or bruising, not metabolic disturbances like elevated blood sugar.
Choice B reason: Raccoon eyes, or periorbital ecchymosis, are a hallmark sign of a basilar skull fracture. Blood from fractured cranial bones pools around the eyes due to gravity, indicating trauma to the skull base. This results from vascular disruption and is a specific clinical finding in such injuries.
Choice C reason: Battle’s sign, or mastoid ecchymosis, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. Blood tracks behind the ear due to fracture-related hemorrhage in the posterior cranial fossa. This physical sign is highly specific and results from bone disruption near the mastoid process.
Choice D reason: A positive halo sign test result indicates cerebrospinal fluid leakage, a common feature of basilar skull fractures. The clear fluid mixed with blood forms a halo-like ring on absorbent material, reflecting a breach in the dura mater, making it a specific diagnostic sign.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Feeling power from food restriction indicates anorexia nervosa, not bulimia, which involves bingeing and purging. This statement reflects control over intake, making it incorrect for bulimia.
Choice B reason: Using laxatives only for constipation is not typical of bulimia, where laxatives are misused for purging. This statement lacks the binge-purge cycle, making it incorrect for bulimia.
Choice C reason: Secretive bingeing and purging for years is a hallmark of bulimia nervosa, reflecting the shame and concealment common in the disorder. This makes it the correct statement for identification.
Choice D reason: Feeling an emotional high during binge-purge episodes may occur but is less specific than secretive behavior. The secrecy in choice C is more definitive, making this incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering clozapine, an antipsychotic, is a restrictive intervention due to its pharmacological impact on dopamine and serotonin receptors, altering brain function. Used for severe aggression, it involves significant side effects (e.g., agranulocytosis), making it more restrictive than non-pharmacological options, as it alters the client’s mental state and requires monitoring.
Choice B reason: Asking a child to return to their room after yelling is the least restrictive alternative, as it involves verbal guidance without physical or pharmacological intervention. This approach allows de-escalation in a safe environment, addressing behavior driven by emotional dysregulation without invasive measures, preserving autonomy and safety.
Choice C reason: Physical restraints are highly restrictive, limiting movement and autonomy, and are used only in extreme cases to prevent harm. They can cause physical and psychological trauma, increasing stress hormone release (e.g., cortisol), and are far more invasive than verbal redirection, making them a highly restrictive intervention.
Choice D reason: Taking an adolescent to a secure quiet room is a restrictive measure, as it isolates the client and limits freedom, though less invasive than restraints or medication. It addresses aggressive behavior potentially linked to heightened amygdala activity but is more restrictive than verbal redirection, as it physically removes the client from the environment.
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