Which statement is true regarding hemophilia?

Hemophilia is not hereditary in nature.

Hemophilia can be treated by replacement therapy.

Hemophilia is an X-linked dominant genetic disorder.

Hemophilia B is the most common form of hemophilia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Hemophilia is a hereditary disorder caused by a deficiency of specific clotting factors, and it is indeed hereditary in nature. This statement is incorrect.

Choice B rationale:

Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder where the blood does not clot properly. Replacement therapy, which involves infusing clotting factor concentrates, is a standard treatment for hemophilia. This statement is correct.

Choice C rationale:

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder, not dominant. Males are more commonly affected because they have only one X chromosome, and if it carries the defective gene, they will have hemophilia. Females have two X chromosomes, and if one X chromosome carries the defective gene, the other X chromosome can compensate, making them carriers but not typically affected.

Choice D rationale:

Hemophilia A is the most common form of hemophilia, not hemophilia B.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Triple-drug therapy is not the standard treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Choice B rationale:
IV therapy is a broad term and does not specify the treatment for pernicious anemia. In the context of pernicious anemia, cobalamin replacement therapy administered via intramuscular injections is the preferred treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Quadruple-drug therapy is not a recognized treatment for pernicious anemia. The primary treatment for pernicious anemia involves cobalamin replacement therapy to address the vitamin B12 deficiency.
Choice D rationale:
Cobalamin replacement therapy is the appropriate treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Since the patient lacks intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, cobalamin replacement therapy bypasses the need for intrinsic factor and provides the necessary vitamin B12 directly.

A. Sodium level of 136 mEq/L, potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L. B. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L, potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. C. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L, potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. D. Sodium level of 144 mEq/L, potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The sodium level is within the normal range, but the potassium level is slightly elevated. This does not support the rationale for changing the IV prescription to a lower potassium concentration.

Choice B rationale:

The sodium level is slightly elevated, and the potassium level is within the normal range. This does not support the rationale for changing the IV prescription to a lower potassium concentration.

Choice C rationale:

Sodium level of 135 mEq/L, potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is the correct answer. In this option, both sodium and potassium levels are within normal ranges. Changing the IV prescription to DSNS with 20 mEq KCl/L ensures that the patient receives adequate hydration (from the dextrose and normal saline) without causing hyperkalemia.

Choice D rationale:

The sodium level is slightly elevated, and the potassium level is within the normal range. This does not support the rationale for changing the IV prescription to a lower potassium concentration.

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Which statement is true regarding hemophilia?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which treatment is likely to be planned for a patient who develops pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse receives a health care provider's prescription to change a patient's IV from D5. half-normal saline with 40 mEq KCl/L to DSNS with 20 mEq KCl/L. Which set of serum laboratory values supports the rationale for this IV prescription change?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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