The arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a patient who overdosed on barbiturates are pH = 7.32, PaCO2 = 52, and HCO3 = 23. Which interpretation would the nurse rely on when planning the patient's care?
Metabolic acidosis.
Metabolic alkalosis.
Respiratory acidosis.
Respiratory alkalosis.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is c. Respiratory acidosis.
Choice A reason: Metabolic acidosis is incorrect because the HCO3 level is normal. In metabolic acidosis, we would expect to see a decreased HCO3.
Choice B reason: Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because the HCO3 level is normal. In metabolic alkalosis, we would expect to see an increased HCO3.
Choice C reason: The given ABG results indicate a low pH (acidosis), an elevated PaCO2 (respiratory component), and a normal HCO3 (metabolic component). The low pH and increased PaCO2 suggest respiratory acidosis.
Choice D reason: Respiratory alkalosis is incorrect because the PaCO2 level is elevated, not decreased. In respiratory alkalosis, we would expect to see a decreased PaCO2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A lumbar puncture is not typically performed to rule out bone marrow involvement in non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Imaging studies and bone marrow biopsies are more appropriate for evaluating bone marrow involvement.
Choice B rationale:
Determining the level of cell differentiation is not the primary purpose of a lumbar puncture in non-Hodgkin lymphoma. This information is usually obtained from a biopsy of the affected lymph nodes or organs.
Choice C rationale:
Identifying the specific lymph cell type involved is not the main objective of a lumbar puncture in non-Hodgkin lymphoma. This information is usually determined through lymph node biopsy and other imaging studies.
Choice D rationale:
The purpose of a lumbar puncture in non-Hodgkin lymphoma is to find any central nervous system involvement. Lymphoma cells can spread to the central nervous system, and a lumbar puncture allows for the examination of cerebrospinal fluid to detect any cancerous cells, which can guide treatment decisions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
0.459% saline is a hypotonic solution with a lower concentration of salt than the normal physiological range (0.9% NaCl) Hypotonic solutions can cause red blood cells to swell and potentially burst due to the osmotic imbalance, making it inappropriate for hypovolemic shock.
Choice B rationale:
0.9% NaCl, also known as normal saline, is an isotonic solution with a salt concentration similar to the body's own fluids. Isotonic solutions are ideal for hypovolemic shock as they help to expand the intravascular volume without causing significant shifts of fluid and electrolytes within the body compartments.
Choice C rationale:
5% dextrose in 0.45% saline is a hypotonic solution with a low salt concentration. While it provides some fluid replacement, it doesn't address the electrolyte imbalance adequately, which is crucial in hypovolemic shock.
Choice D rationale:
Dextran is a plasma volume expander but is not the first-line choice for hypovolemic shock. It might be used in certain situations, but isotonic crystalloids like 0.9% NaCl are preferred for rapid volume expansion and stabilization of the patient.
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