The arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a patient who overdosed on barbiturates are pH = 7.32, PaCO2 = 52, and HCO3 = 23. Which interpretation would the nurse rely on when planning the patient's care?
Metabolic acidosis.
Metabolic alkalosis.
Respiratory acidosis.
Respiratory alkalosis.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is c. Respiratory acidosis.
Choice A reason: Metabolic acidosis is incorrect because the HCO3 level is normal. In metabolic acidosis, we would expect to see a decreased HCO3.
Choice B reason: Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because the HCO3 level is normal. In metabolic alkalosis, we would expect to see an increased HCO3.
Choice C reason: The given ABG results indicate a low pH (acidosis), an elevated PaCO2 (respiratory component), and a normal HCO3 (metabolic component). The low pH and increased PaCO2 suggest respiratory acidosis.
Choice D reason: Respiratory alkalosis is incorrect because the PaCO2 level is elevated, not decreased. In respiratory alkalosis, we would expect to see a decreased PaCO2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The patient's symptoms of leg pain that worsens at night and occurs when the legs are elevated but improves when they are dangled are indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD) PAD is a condition caused by the narrowing of arteries in the legs due to atherosclerosis. This narrowing restricts blood flow to the muscles, causing pain, especially during activities or positions that demand increased blood flow like walking or elevating the legs.
Choice B rationale:
Lymphatic obstruction typically does not cause pain in the same manner described by the patient. Lymphatic obstruction may cause swelling and discomfort, but it usually does not lead to pain that worsens with elevation and improves with dangling.
Choice C rationale:
Chronic venous insufficiency can cause leg pain and swelling, especially when standing for extended periods. However, the characteristic of pain worsening at night and with leg elevation points more towards arterial issues like PAD rather than venous insufficiency.
Choice D rationale:
Musculoskeletal abnormalities could cause localized pain, but the pattern described by the patient (worsening at night, relief with dangling) is not typical of musculoskeletal issues. PAD, on the other hand, often presents with these specific symptoms due to compromised blood flow to the muscles in the legs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Skeletal pain is not a typical finding in stage I Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma typically presents with painless enlarged lymph nodes, which is a hallmark symptom of the disease.
Choice B rationale:
Enlarged lymph nodes are a characteristic feature of Hodgkin lymphoma. In stage I, the disease is localized to one group of lymph nodes.
Choice C rationale:
T-cell blasts in the lymph node are not specific to Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large abnormal B cells, not T-cell blasts.
Choice D rationale:
Lymphoblasts in the cerebrospinal fluid are not associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Involvement of the central nervous system is rare in Hodgkin lymphoma and typically does not lead to the presence of lymphoblasts in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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