While caring for a patient scheduled for knee replacement surgery, the nurse provides cefazolin(antibiotic) as ordered 30 minutes preoperatively. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

"This medication will replace vitamins and minerals that may be lost due to bleeding during surgery."

"This is a palliative medication to help ease the pain from surgery."

"This medication will help the surgeon identify areas of bone destruction due to arthritis."

"This antibiotic is given as a prophylactic to help reduce the risk of infection after surgery."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. "This medication will replace vitamins and minerals that may be lost due to bleeding during surgery." Cefazolin is an antibiotic, not a replacement for vitamins and minerals. This statement is incorrect.

B. "This is a palliative medication to help ease the pain from surgery."Cefazolin is not a palliative medication; it is an antibiotic used to prevent infection, not to relieve pain.

C. "This medication will help the surgeon identify areas of bone destruction due to arthritis." Cefazolin does not aid in the identification of bone destruction. It is an antibiotic, not a diagnostic tool.

D. "This antibiotic is given as a prophylactic to help reduce the risk of infection after surgery."
This statement is correct. Cefazolin is given prophylactically to reduce the risk of postoperative infection.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Therapeutic level: This is the correct answer. It refers to the concentration of a drug in the bloodstream at which it achieves the desired effect without causing toxicity.

B. Therapeutic index: This is a ratio that compares the toxic dose to the therapeutic dose of a drug. It does not refer to the point of optimal effect.

C. Toxic level: This refers to the concentration of a drug at which it becomes harmful or toxic. It is not associated with the desired effect.

D. Therapeutic range: This refers to the range between the minimum effective concentration and the toxic concentration of a drug. It does not pinpoint the optimal effect but indicates the safe range.

A. Nonscheduled medication B. Schedule III medication C. Schedule I medication D. Schedule V medication

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Non-scheduled medication: OTC cough suppressants are typically classified as non-scheduled medications because they are not considered controlled substances and do not require a prescription for purchase.

B. Schedule III medication: Schedule III medications are controlled substances with a moderate potential for abuse and dependence. OTC cough suppressants do not fall under this category.

C. Schedule I medication: Schedule I medications are drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse (e.g., heroin). OTC cough suppressants are not classified in this schedule.

D. Schedule V medication: Schedule V medications are controlled substances with a lower potential for abuse. While some cough medications containing codeine may be Schedule V, common OTC cough suppressants do not fall under this category unless they contain specific controlled substances.

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While caring for a patient scheduled for knee replacement surgery, the nurse provides cefazolin(antibiotic) as ordered 30 minutes preoperatively. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

Nursing Test Bank

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