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Ati lpn med surg haematology
Ati lpn med surg haematology
Total Questions : 36
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.
B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.
C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.
D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a platelet count of <20,000/mm3 (150,000-400000). Which of the following precautions should the nurse take in providing care for this patient?
Explanation
A. Report fever to MD ASAP: While fever in any immunocompromised patient should be reported, it does not directly address precautions related to low platelet counts and bleeding risks.
B. Use a soft toothbrush with oral care: With a low platelet count, the patient is at risk for bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush minimizes the risk of gum injury and bleeding, a critical safety measure for thrombocytopenic patients.
C. Drink hot liquids TID: Hot liquids are not recommended as they may cause mouth or esophageal burns, increasing bleeding risk if the mucosa is damaged. Tepid or cold fluids are safer.
D. Recommend straight edge razor for shaving: Patients with low platelets should use an electric razor to avoid cuts, as any bleeding is harder to control in thrombocytopenic individuals.
A nurse is preparing to administer 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer's IV over 6 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Explanation
Flowrate= Total volume ml×Drop factor÷Time
​= (1000 × 10) ÷ 360
= 27.78
≈ 28 gtt/min
A nurse is collecting data on a client who is to receive a blood transfusion. Which of the following data is the nurse's priority before the transfusion begins?
Explanation
A. Skin color: While skin color can show signs of reactions, it is a secondary measure. Temperature changes can be more immediately significant in assessing transfusion reactions.
B. Temperature: Temperature is the priority because a fever can indicate an infection or may develop as a sign of a transfusion reaction. Monitoring baseline temperature helps quickly identify febrile reactions to the transfusion.
C. Hemoglobin level: Although important to verify, the hemoglobin level is part of the overall assessment but does not directly predict or prevent transfusion reactions.
D. Fluid intake: Fluid intake is monitored for fluid overload risk but is not as immediate in the prevention of transfusion reactions.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is to have a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. The nurse should tell the client that, in addition to the iliac crest, a common site for this procedure is which of the following?
Explanation
A. Hip: While “hip” can sometimes colloquially refer to the iliac crest, it is not commonly used to describe the specific site for aspiration outside of the iliac crest.
B. Cervical spine: The cervical spine is not a site used for bone marrow aspiration due to its inaccessibility and proximity to critical structures.
C. Sternum: The sternum is a common site for bone marrow aspiration in adults as it provides direct access to the marrow.
D. Humerus: The humerus is generally not used for bone marrow aspirations as it does not provide as accessible or large an area for aspiration.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an indication the client is having an acute hemolytic reaction?
Explanation
A. Pulmonary congestion: Pulmonary congestion is associated more with fluid overload or transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), not an acute hemolytic reaction.
B. Urticaria: Urticaria (hives) is more typical of a mild allergic reaction rather than an acute hemolytic reaction.
C. Vomiting: Although nausea and vomiting may occur in various transfusion reactions, it is not specific to an acute hemolytic reaction like low back pain is.
D. Low back pain: Low back pain, often around the kidneys, is a classic sign of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the breakdown of RBCs and the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to renal damage. This reaction is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is to receive one unit of packed RBCs. Within which of the following time spans must the nurse complete the infusion?
Explanation
A. 2 hr: While some patients may tolerate faster infusion rates, the maximum safe time is 4 hours, and there is no requirement to complete it in 2 hours.
B. 8 hr: Blood cannot be left out for 8 hours due to the increased risk of bacterial growth and contamination.
C. 6 hr: Infusing blood over 6 hours exceeds the safe time limit and poses a risk of bacterial contamination.
D. 4 hr: To reduce the risk of bacterial contamination, a unit of packed RBCs must be transfused within 4 hours of starting the infusion. This time frame ensures that the blood remains safe for the patient while minimizing exposure to room temperature.
A nurse is reviewing data for a client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. Progressive increase in platelet production: In DIC, platelets are rapidly consumed, not increased, due to widespread clotting in the blood vessels.
B. Excessive thrombosis and bleeding: DIC is a complex condition where there is widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to excessive clotting and subsequent depletion of platelets and clotting factors, resulting in both thrombosis and bleeding.
C. Immediate sodium and fluid retention: Sodium and fluid retention are not specific findings in DIC; they may occur in cases of renal or heart failure but are unrelated to the clotting issues in DIC.
D. Increased clotting factors: In DIC, clotting factors are depleted as they are used up in widespread clotting, leading to bleeding when factors are exhausted.
A pediatric nurse is assisting with the care of a school-age child who has leukemia.
Explanation
A. Blood pressure: The blood pressure is within normal limits and does not indicate an acute issue in this context.
B. Skin assessment: The presence of pallor and bruising indicates potential anemia and thrombocytopenia, common in leukemia patients but concerning signs that need to be monitored.
C. Breath sounds: Rhonchi in the upper lobes suggest respiratory congestion or infection, which is dangerous in an immunocompromised child.
D. Oxygen saturation: A drop in oxygen saturation to 90% indicates impaired oxygenation, which could signify respiratory distress or worsening infection.
E. WBC count: Although WBC count is within the low-normal range, it does not independently indicate an immediate change in the child’s condition.
F. Retractions: Subcostal retractions indicate respiratory distress, which is critical to report as it could escalate quickly in a child.
G. Respiratory rate: The increased respiratory rate (from 22 to 30/min) reflects respiratory distress and may worsen if the infection progresses.
H. Hemoglobin: While low, the hemoglobin is not acutely life-threatening in this case and would not necessarily prompt urgent intervention without other symptoms.
The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?
Explanation
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.
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