LPN Med Surg

ATI LPN Med Surg

Total Questions : 24

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Question 1: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a partial bowel resection. The client requires a complete dressing change, total parenteral nutrition administration, daily weight and is reporting pain at a level of 6 on a 0 to 10 scale. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse plan to complete first?

Explanation

Choice A: Obtain the client’s vital signs. This is an important nursing action, but not the priority. The nurse should monitor the client’s vital signs for signs of infection, fluid imbalance, or shock, but these are not as urgent as relieving the client’s pain.

Choice B: Weigh the client. This is a necessary nursing action, but not the priority. The nurse should weigh the client daily to assess their fluid status and nutritional needs, but this can be done after addressing the client’s pain.

Choice C: Administer pain medication. This is the priority nursing action because the nurse should follow the principle of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and address the client’s physiological needs first. Pain can interfere with the client’s healing process and affect their quality of life.

Choice D: Change the client’s dressing. This is a required nursing action, but not the priority. The nurse should change the client’s dressing to prevent infection and promote wound healing, but this can be done after administering pain medication to make the procedure more comfortable for the client.


Question 2: View

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has diabetes mellitus type 1 about sick-day management. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to recommend to the client?

Explanation

Choice A: “Monitor blood glucose levels every 4 hours.” This is the priority action for the nurse to recommend to the client because it will help them detect and prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis or cerebral edema.

Choice B: “Consume 15 grams of carbohydrates every 1 to 2 hours.” This is an important action for the nurse to recommend to the client, but not the priority. The client should consume carbohydrates to prevent hypoglycemia, especially if they have nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, but this should be done after monitoring their blood glucose levels.

Choice C: “Drink 8 ounces of fluid every hour while awake.” This is a necessary action for the nurse to recommend to the client, but not the priority. The client should drink fluids to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can worsen hyperglycemia, but this should be done after monitoring their blood glucose levels.

Choice D: “Take the usual dosage of insulin.” This is a required action for the nurse to recommend to the client, but not the priority. The client should take their insulin as prescribed to control their blood glucose levels, but this should be done after monitoring their blood glucose levels and adjusting the dosage if needed.


Question 3: View

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and reports having heartburn every night. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the client’s heartburn?

Explanation

Choice A: Drinking orange juice regularly. This is a contributing factor to the client’s heartburn because orange juice is acidic and can irritate the esophageal mucosa and lower esophageal sphincter, causing reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus.

Choice B: Eating dinner early in the evening. This is not a contributing factor to the client’s heartburn, but rather a recommended action for the client to prevent heartburn. The client should avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to allow for gastric emptying and reduce the risk of reflux.

Choice C: Consuming low-fat meats. This is not a contributing factor to the client’s heartburn, but rather a recommended action for the client to prevent heartburn. The client should avoid high-fat foods, which can delay gastric emptying and increase intra-abdominal pressure, leading to reflux.

Choice D: Sleeping on a large wedge-style pillow. This is not a contributing factor to the client’s heartburn, but rather a recommended action for the client to prevent heartburn. The client should elevate the head of their bed or use a wedge pillow to create an incline that prevents gastric contents from flowing back into the esophagus.


Question 4: View

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is 1 day postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports severe muscle spasms of the lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A: Determine the client’s calcium level. This is the priority action for the nurse to take because the client might have hypocalcemia, which is a low level of calcium in the blood. Hypocalcemia can occur after a thyroidectomy due to accidental removal or damage of the parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium levels. Hypocalcemia can cause muscle spasms, tetany, paresthesia, and seizures.

Choice B: Give the client an oral potassium supplement. This is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because the client might have hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can also occur after a thyroidectomy due to damage to the adrenal glands, which regulate potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness, arrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.

Choice C: Administer intravenous normal saline solution. This is not a necessary action for the nurse to take because the client does not have signs of dehydration or fluid imbalance. Normal saline solution does not affect calcium or potassium levels.

Choice D: Monitor the client’s peripheral pulses. This is an important action for the nurse to take, but not the priority. The nurse should monitor the client’s peripheral pulses for signs of decreased perfusion or ischemia, which can result from hypocalcemia or hyperkalemia affecting the cardiac function. However, this should be done after determining the client’s calcium level and correcting it if needed.


Question 5: View

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following treatments should the nurse expect to administer?

Explanation

Choice A: Docusate. This is not a treatment that the nurse should expect to administer to a client with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Docusate is a stool softener that can prevent constipation and straining, but it is not indicated for ulcerative colitis.

Choice B: A corticosteroid medication. This is a treatment that the nurse should expect to administer to a client with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, which is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that causes ulcers and inflammation in the colon and rectum. A corticosteroid medication, such as prednisone, can reduce inflammation, suppress the immune system, and relieve symptoms such as diarrhea, bleeding, and pain.

Choice C: Aspirin. This is not a treatment that the nurse should expect to administer to a client with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can relieve pain and inflammation, but it can also irritate the gastrointestinal mucosa and worsen ulcerative colitis.

Choice D: A bowel cathartic medication. This is not a treatment that the nurse should expect to administer to a client with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. A bowel cathartic medication, such as bisacodyl, can stimulate bowel movements and cleanse the colon, but it can also cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and aggravate ulcerative colitis.


Question 6: View

A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for a client who is 4 hr postoperative from a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following implementations should the nurse recommend?

Explanation

Choice A: Check for bleeding on the dressing at the back of the client’s neck. This is an implementation that the nurse should recommend for a client who is 4 hr postoperative from a subtotal thyroidectomy, which is a surgical removal of part of the thyroid gland. The nurse should check for bleeding on the dressing at the back of the client’s neck because this is where blood can pool and go unnoticed. Bleeding can cause hematoma, compression of the airway, and respiratory distress.

Choice B: Ensure that acetylcysteine IV is readily available. This is not an implementation that the nurse should recommend for a client who is 4 hr postoperative from a subtotal thyroidectomy. Acetylcysteine IV is an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, which can cause liver damage, but it is not related to thyroid surgery.

Choice C: Place the client in a side-lying position. This is not an implementation that the nurse should recommend for a client who is 4 hr postoperative from a subtotal thyroidectomy. The nurse should place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position, which is a position with the head of the bed elevated to 30 to 45 degrees. This position can facilitate breathing, reduce edema, and prevent aspiration.

Choice D: Check the client for asterixis. This is not an implementation that the nurse should recommend for a client who is 4 hr postoperative from a subtotal thyroidectomy. Asterixis is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a condition caused by liver failure, but it is not related to thyroid surgery.


Question 7: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client asks the nurse if there will be a lot of pain during the procedure. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Explanation

Choice A: “You shouldn’t feel any pain since the local area is anaesthetized.” This is not a response that the nurse should make to the client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should not tell the client that they will not feel any pain, as this may create unrealistic expectations and increase anxiety if they do experience discomfort. The nurse should also not tell the client that the local area is anaesthetized, as this is not true. The client does not receive local anesthesia for a colonoscopy, but rather sedation and pain medication.

Choice B: “Don’t worry, you won’t remember anything about the procedure due to the effects of the medication.” This is not a response that the nurse should make to the client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should not tell the client not to worry, as this may sound dismissive and insensitive to their concerns. The nurse should also not tell the client that they will not remember anything about the procedure, as this is not true. The client may receive conscious sedation for a colonoscopy, which means that they are awake but drowsy and relaxed. They may have some memory loss of the procedure, but they are not completely unconscious.

Choice C: “Most clients report more discomfort from the preparation than from the procedure itself.” This is not a response that the nurse should make to the client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should not compare the client’s experience to other clients, as this may minimize their feelings and individual differences. The nurse should also not focus on the preparation, which involves drinking a large amount of liquid laxative to empty the colon, as this may increase anxiety and dread for the client. The nurse should instead focus on providing information and support for both the preparation and the procedure.

Choice D: “You may feel some cramping during the procedure.” This is a response that the nurse should make to the client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy, which is a diagnostic test that uses a flexible tube with a camera to examine the colon and rectum. The nurse should inform the client that they may feel some cramping during the procedure as the tube is inserted and moved through the colon. The nurse should also reassure the client that they will receive sedation and pain medication to make them comfortable and relaxed.


Question 8: View

A nurse is assessing a client who has advanced cirrhosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to find?

Explanation

Choice A: Weak pulse. This is not a manifestation that the nurse should expect to find in a client who has advanced cirrhosis. A weak pulse may indicate hypovolemia, shock, or cardiac dysfunction, but it is not directly related to liver disease.

Choice B: Dark colored stools. This is not a manifestation that the nurse should expect to find in a client who has advanced cirrhosis. Dark colored stools may indicate bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as from esophageal varices or peptic ulcers, but they are not specific to liver disease.

Choice C: Spider angioma. This is a manifestation that the nurse should expect to find in a client who has advanced cirrhosis, which is a chronic liver disease that causes scarring and impaired liver function. Spider angioma is a type of vascular lesion that appears as a red spot with radiating branches on the skin, usually on the face, neck, chest, or upper arms. It is caused by increased estrogen levels due to reduced liver metabolism of hormones.

Choice D: Increased body hair. This is not a manifestation that the nurse should expect to find in a client who has advanced cirrhosis. Increased body hair may indicate hypertrichosis, which is excessive hair growth due to genetic, hormonal, or metabolic factors, but it is not related to liver disease.


Question 9: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has developed a Clostridium difficile infection following antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A: Implement neutropenia isolation. This is not an action that the nurse should take for a client who has developed a Clostridium difficile infection. Neutropenia isolation is a type of protective isolation that is used for

clients who have low white blood cell counts and are at risk of infection from others. It is not indicated for clients who have Clostridium difficile infection, which is not transmited through the air.

Choice B: Use alcohol hand sanitizer following client care. This is not an action that the nurse should take for a client who has developed a Clostridium difficile infection. Alcohol hand sanitizer is ineffective against Clostridium difficile spores and can increase the risk of transmission. The nurse should wash their hands with soap and water, which can remove the spores from the skin.

Choice C: Monitor the client for manifestations of fluid overload. This is not an action that the nurse should take for a client who has developed a Clostridium difficile infection. Fluid overload is a condition that occurs when the body retains excess fluid and causes symptoms such as edema, dyspnea, and hypertension. It is not related to Clostridium difficile infection, which can cause fluid loss due to diarrhea and dehydration. The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations of fluid deficit, such as dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension.

Choice D: Disinfect equipment with bleach solution. This is an action that the nurse should take for a client who has developed a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a bacterial infection that causes severe diarrhea and inflammation of the colon. Clostridium difficile spores are resistant to most disinfectants and can survive on surfaces for a long time. The nurse should disinfect equipment with bleach solution, which can kill the spores and prevent transmission.


Question 10: View

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis. Which of the following findings is expected for this condition?

Explanation

Choice A: Faty stools. This is a finding that is expected for a client who has obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis, which is the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts. The common bile duct carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum, where it helps digest fats. If the common bile duct is obstructed by a gallstone, bile cannot reach the duodenum and fats cannot be properly absorbed. This results in fatty stools, which are also known as steatorrhea. Fatty stools are pale, bulky, greasy, and foul-smelling.

Choice B: Ecchymosis of the extremities. This is not a finding that is expected for a client who has obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis. Ecchymosis of the extremities is a sign of bleeding under the skin, which can be caused by trauma, coagulation disorders, or medications. It is not related to bile duct obstruction or gallstones.

Choice C: Straw-colored urine. This is not a finding that is expected for a client who has obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis. Straw-coloured urine is a normal colour of urine, which indicates adequate hydration and kidney function. It is not affected by bile duct obstruction or gallstones.

Choice D: Tenderness in the left upper abdomen. This is not a finding that is expected for a client who has obstruction and inflammation of the common bile duct due to cholelithiasis. Tenderness in the left upper abdomen is a sign of splenomegaly, which is an enlargement of the spleen due to infection, inflammation, or cancer. It is not related to bile duct obstruction or gallstones.


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