Ati LPN Med Surg Midterm
Ati LPN Med Surg Midterm
Total Questions : 100
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is collecting data on a client who has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. Abdominal pain: Abdominal pain is not typically associated with respiratory acidosis. Respiratory acidosis is a condition that occurs when the lungs can’t remove enough carbon dioxide, resulting in an acidic blood pH.
B. Lethargy: Lethargy is a common symptom of respiratory acidosis. Patients may experience fatigue, especially during the daytime1. This is due to the increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which can cause confusion, drowsiness, and fatigue
C. Dry skin: Dry skin is not a common symptom of respiratory acidosis. The condition primarily affects the respiratory system and does not typically cause skin changes.
D. Numbness of fingers: While numbness of fingers can be a symptom of various conditions, it is not typically associated with respiratory acidosis. The primary symptoms of respiratory acidosis are related to increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, such as lethargy and confusion.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about the effects of spirituality for clients who are near the end of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. Spirituality can increase feelings of hopelessness: This is generally not the case. Spirituality often provides a sense of hope and meaning, especially during challenging times such as the end of life.
B. Spirituality can increase depression: On the contrary, spirituality often serves as a source of comfort and strength, and can help individuals cope with emotional pain and feelings of depression.
C. Spirituality can increase the desire to hasten death: Spirituality typically helps individuals find meaning and purpose in their experiences, which can actually decrease the desire for a hastened death.
D. Spirituality can increase the quality of life: This is correct. Spirituality often enhances the quality of life, especially near the end of life. It can provide a sense of peace, comfort, and well-being. It can also help individuals make sense of their experiences and find meaning in them
A nurse is administering an IV antihypertensive to a client who has a BP of 185/130 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
A. Check for orthostatic hypertension: While checking for orthostatic hypertension is important; it is not the first action a nurse should take when administering an IV antihypertensive. The priority is to monitor the client’s response to the medication.
B. Instruct the client to restrict sodium intake: While dietary modifications such as sodium restriction can help manage hypertension, it is not the immediate concern when administering an IV antihypertensive. The priority is to monitor the client’s response to the medication.
C. Assist the client to make lifestyle changes: Lifestyle changes are a crucial part of managing hypertension, but they are not the immediate concern when administering an IV antihypertensive. The priority is to monitor the client’s response to the medication.
D. Monitor the client’s BP every 5 minutes: This is the correct answer. When administering an IV antihypertensive, it is crucial to closely monitor the client’s blood pressure to assess the effectiveness of the medication and to ensure the client’s safety. The client’s high blood pressure of 185/130 mm Hg is a serious condition that requires immediate and careful management.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is at the end of life. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. Moist mucous membranes: Moist mucous membranes are typically a sign of good hydration and are not usually associated with end-of-life stages. In fact, patients nearing the end of life often experience dryness of the mouth and mucous membranes due to decreased fluid intake and certain medications. This dryness can lead to discomfort and difficulties in swallowing or speaking, which is why oral care is an important part of end-of-life care.
B. Irregular respirations: This is correct. As the body’s systems start to shut down in the final stages of life, irregular respirations, including periods of rapid breathing and pauses (Cheyne-Stokes respirations), can be a common symptom. This happens because the body can no longer effectively remove carbon dioxide, and the automatic process of breathing becomes less coordinated. This can be distressing to witness, but it’s usually not uncomfortable for the patient.
C. Tachycardia: While some patients may experience changes in heart rate, tachycardia is not typically a consistent finding in patients at the end of life. As the body weakens, the heart has to work harder to pump blood, which can sometimes lead to a faster heart rate. However, as the end of life approaches, the heart rate often slows down, and blood pressure decreases.
D. Hypertension: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not typically a symptom associated with end-of-life care. In the final stages of life, the body’s systems begin to slow down, and blood pressure often decreases. This is due to a combination of factors, including a slower heart rate and a decrease in the body’s ability to regulate blood pressure. It’s also worth noting that pain, anxiety, and certain medications can temporarily increase blood pressure, even in the end-of-life stages.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking furosemide and notes the client's potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect related to the client's hypokalemia?
Explanation
A. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. While both conditions can occur due to certain diseases or medication use, they are not directly related.
B. Hyperreflexia: Hyperreflexia, a condition characterized by overactive reflexes, is not a common symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects muscle function, leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness, cramps, and potentially cardiac dysrhythmias. It does not typically cause an overactive reflex response.
C. Cardiac dysrhythmias: This is correct. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal electrical activity in the heart. When potassium levels are low, it can disrupt this electrical activity, leading to irregular heart rhythms.
D. Increased appetite: Increased appetite is not a typical symptom of hypokalemia. In fact, loss of appetite is more commonly associated with this condition. Severe hypokalemia can affect the functioning of the muscles in the digestive system, leading to symptoms such as bloating, constipation, and abdominal pain.
A charge nurse is discussing evidence-based practice (EBP) with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing the hierarchy of evidence?
Explanation
A. Qualitative studies are considered to be one type of Level I evidence: Qualitative studies are not typically considered Level I evidence. The hierarchy of evidence is a rating system used to evaluate the strength of evidence presented in medical research. Level I evidence usually includes systematic reviews, meta-analyses, and randomized controlled trials.
B. Level Vil evidence comes from a meta-analysis of multiple peer-reviewed studies: This statement is not accurate. Meta-analyses and systematic reviews are usually considered Level I evidence, as they provide the highest level of evidence. They synthesize and analyze multiple studies on a topic to provide a comprehensive view of the current evidence.
C. Level I evidence includes evidence found in nursing textbooks: Nursing textbooks are not considered Level I evidence. They often include a mix of different levels of evidence, from expert opinion to systematic reviews. While they are a valuable resource for background information and clinical guidelines, they do not represent the highest level of evidence.
D. Level I evidence is considered to be the best evidence to support EBP: This is correct. Level I evidence, which includes systematic reviews, meta-analyses, and randomized controlled trials, is considered the highest level of evidence and provides the most reliable basis for decision-making in evidence-based practice
The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the the following patients should the nurse evaluate first?
Explanation
A. A patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) who reports chest pain radiating to the jaw: This patient should be evaluated first. Chest pain radiating to the jaw can be a sign of a heart attack, which is a life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
B. A patient with venous insufficiency with 2+ pitting edema: While this patient’s condition needs to be addressed, it is not as immediately life-threatening as a potential heart attack. Venous insufficiency and edema can lead to discomfort and complications if left untreated, but these complications are typically not immediate.
C. A patient receiving enoxaparin (Lovenox) for experiencing an MI 3 days ago: This patient is already receiving treatment for their condition. While they should be monitored for side effects of the medication and signs of further cardiac issues, they are not the highest priority based on the information given.
D. A patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD) with a diminished pulse: While a diminished pulse can indicate poor blood flow, which can lead to complications such as tissue damage and non-healing wounds, it is not as immediately life-threatening as a potential heart attack. This patient should be evaluated, but they are not the highest priority based on the information given.
A nurse is reinforcing preoperative teaching with a client who will undergo abdominal surgery. The nurse explains that the client will wear antiembolism stockings after the procedure. When the client asks what the stockings do, which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Explanation
A. “They’ll protect your legs and heels from skin breakdown.”: While antiembolism stockings can provide some degree of protection against skin breakdown due to their snug fit, this is not their primary purpose. Their main function is to improve circulation and prevent blood clots, not to protect the skin.
B. “They’ll make it easier for you to do leg exercises after your surgery.”: Antiembolism stockings do not directly facilitate leg exercises. While they can help improve circulation which might indirectly aid in recovery, their primary purpose is to prevent the formation of blood clots in the lower extremities.
C. “They’ll improve your circulation to keep blood from pooling in your legs.”: This is correct. Antiembolism stockings, also known as compression stockings, are designed to apply pressure to your lower legs, helping to maintain blood flow and reduce discomfort and swelling. They can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a type of blood clot that’s most common in the deep veins of your legs.
D. “They’ll help keep you warm immediately after your surgery.”: While antiembolism stockings might provide some warmth due to their material, this is not their primary function. Their main purpose is to improve circulation in the legs and prevent blood clots.
A client is about to undergo an elective surgical procedure. Which of the following is the role of the nurse providing preoperative care regarding informed consent?
Explanation
A. Obtain the client’s consent: It is not the nurse’s responsibility to obtain the client’s consent for a procedure. This responsibility lies with the healthcare provider performing the procedure.
B. Describe the consequences of forgoing treatment: While it’s important for the client to understand the consequences of not undergoing the procedure, it is the healthcare provider’s responsibility to explain these consequences, not the nurses.
C. Witness the client’s signature: This is correct. The nurse’s role in the informed consent process is to witness the client’s signature on the consent form and to verify that the client is consenting voluntarily and appears to be competent to do so.
D. Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure: While the nurse can reinforce information, it is the healthcare provider’s responsibility to explain the risks and benefits of the procedure. The nurse should ensure that the client understands the information provided by the healthcare provider
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who was admitted to the cardiac telemetry unit after he experienced chest pain, dyspnea and diaphoresis. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) findings is a manifestation of acute myocardial infarction?
Explanation
A. The ST segment is elevated above the isoelectric line: This is correct. ST-segment elevation is a key ECG finding in acute myocardial infarction. It indicates that a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough blood (ischemia), which can lead to tissue damage or death (infarction).
B. The PR intervals are 0.15 second: While the PR interval is an important part of the ECG, a PR interval of 0.15 second is within the normal range and does not indicate an acute myocardial infarction.
C. The QT interval is equal to the R to R interval: The QT interval represents the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave, encompassing ventricular depolarization and repolarization. While prolonged or shortened QT intervals can be associated with certain cardiac conditions, they are not specific indicators of an acute myocardial infarction.
D. The QRS intervals are 0.08 second: The QRS interval represents ventricular depolarization1. A QRS interval of 0.08 second is within the normal range and does not indicate an acute myocardial infarction.
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