Maternal newborn exam
ATI Maternal newborn exam
Total Questions : 41
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreExplanation
Choice A rationale
Delusions indicate severe psychiatric conditions like postpartum psychosis, not depression. Depression involves low mood, energy, and interest, without detachment from reality. Delusions reflect loss of reality testing, requiring different interventions. Common in severe psychoses like schizophrenia.
Choice B rationale
Euphoria indicates abnormally elevated mood, seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder, not depression. Depression involves sadness, hopelessness, and low energy. Euphoria's excessive positivity contrasts with depressive symptoms, including impaired functioning and behavior regulation.
Choice C rationale
Flat affect signifies reduced emotional expression, common in depression. Depressed individuals exhibit lack of response to pleasurable activities, social withdrawal, and emotional blunting. This impairment in emotional expressiveness reflects major depressive disorder.
Choice D rationale
Insomnia, common in depression, affects sleep patterns, causing difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep. It contributes to fatigue, cognitive impairment, and mood disturbances. Insomnia reflects dysregulated sleep-wake cycles in depression, impacting daily functioning.
Choice E rationale
Fatigue is frequent in depression, marked by persistent tiredness despite rest. It stems from sleep disturbances, low energy, and anhedonia. Fatigue affects concentration, motivation, and physical activity, manifesting as psychomotor retardation in depression.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decrease proteinuria is not the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy. It's an indicator of kidney function and hypertension severity. Therapy focuses on neuroprotection and seizure prevention. Proteinuria reflects preeclampsia's renal impact, not neuroprotection.
Choice B rationale
Prevent maternal seizures is magnesium sulfate's primary goal. It stabilizes neuronal membranes, reducing seizure risk in severe preeclampsia. By inhibiting NMDA receptors and calcium channels, it prevents seizures, critical for maternal-fetal safety.
Choice C rationale
Reduce deep tendon reflexes is not magnesium sulfate's primary goal, but a side effect. It signifies therapeutic levels, indicating potential toxicity. Reflex reduction helps assess magnesium toxicity risk, ensuring safe neuroprotective dosing.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking antipsychotics is important, the nurse’s immediate priority should be to assess for harm to the patient or infant, which poses an immediate danger.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring the infant’s health is important but secondary to ensuring the patient and infant's immediate safety from potential harm due to psychosis.
Choice C rationale
Assessing thoughts of harm is crucial in postpartum psychosis as it helps in identifying immediate risks to the patient and infant, allowing for timely interventions.
Choice D rationale
Reviewing the medical record for bipolar disorder is important for treatment planning but not as immediately critical as assessing for thoughts of harm.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking basal temperature during specific days of the menstrual cycle does not provide as accurate an indication of ovulation as consistent daily measurements.
Choice B rationale
Checking temperature before bed may not accurately reflect basal body temperature due to daily activities affecting body temperature.
Choice C rationale
Basal body temperature should be measured every morning before arising, as this reflects the body’s lowest resting temperature and helps identify ovulation.
Choice D rationale
Checking temperature after intercourse may be affected by physical activity and does not provide an accurate basal temperature reading for ovulation tracking.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bruising on the head is common in newborns after a precipitous delivery due to rapid passage through the birth canal, causing trauma to the head.
Choice B rationale
Low birth weight is not specifically associated with precipitous delivery but could be related to other prenatal factors affecting fetal growth.
Choice C rationale
Hypotonia is not a typical finding in a newborn after a precipitous delivery, though it could indicate other neurological or muscular issues.
Choice D rationale
Hyperthermia is not a common finding directly associated with precipitous delivery but could be related to other factors or conditions in the newborn.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Severe nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy but may occur due to other unrelated conditions.
Choice B rationale
Bradycardia is not characteristic of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy but could indicate other cardiovascular issues or conditions.
Choice C rationale
Referred shoulder pain is a hallmark symptom of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to diaphragmatic irritation from internal bleeding, indicating potential rupture.
Choice D rationale
Heavy vaginal bleeding can occur in various conditions but is not as specific to ruptured ectopic pregnancy as referred shoulder pain indicating internal bleeding.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Amniotic fluid embolism is characterized by the sudden onset of respiratory distress due to the entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation.
Choice B rationale
Maternal bradycardia is not a specific symptom of amniotic fluid embolism and may be related to other cardiovascular conditions.
Choice C rationale
Category 1 fetal heart tracing indicates normal fetal heart rate and is not associated with amniotic fluid embolism.
Choice D rationale
Acute, continuous abdominal pain could indicate other obstetric emergencies but is not specifically linked to amniotic fluid embolism symptoms like respiratory distress.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Explaining that the newborn is no longer in pain may not facilitate grieving, as it does not acknowledge the emotional connection and grief the parents are experiencing.
Choice B rationale
Sharing the nurse's own experiences and feelings may shift the focus away from the client's emotions, potentially hindering their grieving process.
Choice C rationale
Avoiding calling the newborn by their name can create a sense of detachment and may prevent the client from fully processing their grief.
Choice D rationale
Allowing the client to hold or be with their newborn provides a tangible connection, facilitating the grieving process and helping them come to terms with their loss.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Azithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat infections and is not indicated for promoting lung maturity in preterm infants.
Choice B rationale
Indomethacin is a tocolytic agent used to delay preterm labor but does not promote lung maturity in the fetus.
Choice C rationale
Magnesium sulfate is used for neuroprotection and to prevent seizures in preeclampsia, but it does not enhance lung maturity.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that accelerates fetal lung development and surfactant production, promoting lung maturity in preterm infants.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rh (D) immunoglobulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in newborns; it prevents maternal immune response.
Choice B rationale
Rh (D) immunoglobulin does not damage Rh antibodies in Rh-negative mothers; it prevents antibody formation.
Choice C rationale
Rh (D) immunoglobulin does not stop Rh antibody formation in Rh-positive newborns but prevents it in Rh-negative mothers.
Choice D rationale
Rh (D) immunoglobulin prevents the formation of Rh antibodies in Rh-negative mothers, reducing the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
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