Med Surg RN 304 Exam
ATI Med Surg RN 304 Exam
Total Questions : 37
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is teaching a group of clients about tick-borne illnesses. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching regarding ticks?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Applying pediculicide lotion is inappropriate for tick removal, as it targets lice, not ticks. This could irritate the skin or prompt the tick to regurgitate, increasing the risk of pathogen transmission, such as Borrelia burgdorferi causing Lyme disease. Proper removal uses mechanical extraction to minimize infection, ensuring safe and effective tick removal without chemical interference.
Choice B reason: Using a hot ember to remove a tick is hazardous and ineffective. Heat may cause the tick to release pathogens into the bite site, heightening infection risk, and can burn the skin. Safe removal involves tweezers grasping the tick near the skin for intact extraction, reducing complications like Lyme disease or Rocky Mountain spotted fever transmission.
Choice C reason: Grasping the tick close to the skin with fine-tipped tweezers is the standard method. This ensures complete removal, including mouthparts, minimizing infection risk from pathogens like Borrelia burgdorferi, which causes Lyme disease. The technique prevents tissue damage and pathogen spread, promoting safe extraction and reducing complications from tick-borne illnesses.
Choice D reason: Using a twisting motion risks breaking the tick’s mouthparts, leaving them embedded, which increases infection risk and complicates removal. A steady, upward pull without twisting is recommended to extract the tick fully, preventing transmission of diseases like Lyme disease or babesiosis, ensuring effective and safe tick removal.
A nurse in an urgent care center is caring for a client who has a greenstick fracture of the forearm. The nurse should explain that which of the following injuries has occurred with a greenstick fracture?
Explanation
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture does not involve bone fragments splintering into surrounding tissue, which characterizes a comminuted fracture. Greenstick fractures, common in children’s flexible bones, involve a partial break where one side bends and cracks lengthwise, leaving the other side intact. This distinction ensures accurate diagnosis, guiding immobilization without surgical intervention for soft tissue damage.
Choice B reason: Bone ends forced toward each other describe an impacted fracture, not a greenstick fracture. In greenstick fractures, the bone bends and partially breaks along its length, typically in pediatric patients due to bone pliability. Misidentification risks inappropriate treatment, such as unnecessary surgical fixation, delaying healing and increasing complications.
Choice C reason: A greenstick fracture is a partial break where the bone cracks lengthwise but doesn’t break through, common in children due to their flexible, less brittle bones. One side bends while the other cracks, requiring immobilization. Accurate identification ensures proper casting, promoting healing without invasive procedures and minimizing long-term deformity risks.
Choice D reason: A sharp bone edge breaking through the skin indicates an open (compound) fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Greenstick fractures are closed, with no skin penetration, as the bone partially breaks and bends. Misdiagnosis could lead to unnecessary infection prophylaxis or surgery, complicating recovery in pediatric patients with this injury.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a fractured femur about fat emboli syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as a manifestation of a fat embolism?
Explanation
Choice A reason: A swollen calf is more indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), not fat emboli syndrome. DVT results from venous stasis or clotting post-fracture, causing localized swelling, unlike fat emboli, which primarily affect systemic circulation, lungs, and skin with petechiae, requiring distinct diagnostic and treatment approaches to prevent complications like pulmonary embolism.
Choice B reason: Fever can occur in fat emboli syndrome due to systemic inflammation but is nonspecific, as it’s common in infections or post-fracture inflammation. It’s not a hallmark sign compared to petechiae, which are more specific. Including fever risks misdiagnosis, as it lacks the specificity needed for accurate patient education on fat emboli manifestations.
Choice C reason: Petechiae on the chest are a classic sign of fat emboli syndrome, occurring in 50-60% of cases. Fat globules embolize to small cutaneous vessels, causing pinpoint hemorrhages. This specific finding, often with respiratory distress and neurological changes, aids early diagnosis, guiding urgent interventions like oxygenation to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice D reason: Paresthesia distal to the fracture suggests local nerve compression or injury, not fat emboli syndrome. Fat emboli cause systemic symptoms like pulmonary and cerebral dysfunction, not localized sensory changes. Misattributing paresthesia to fat emboli could delay treatment for nerve-related issues, compromising patient recovery and accurate symptom management.
A clinic nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pitting edema of the hands and fingers is not a typical SLE finding. It may occur in conditions like heart failure or nephrotic syndrome, but SLE more commonly causes joint swelling or effusions due to synovitis. Expecting edema misdirects assessment, potentially overlooking SLE’s hallmark cutaneous and musculoskeletal symptoms critical for diagnosis.
Choice B reason: A dry, red rash across the nose and cheeks, known as a malar or butterfly rash, is a hallmark of SLE, present in 30-60% of patients. This photosensitive rash results from autoimmune-mediated cutaneous inflammation, aiding diagnosis. Its distinct pattern distinguishes SLE from other dermatologic conditions, guiding targeted treatment.
Choice C reason: A grey, non-purpuric papular rash is not characteristic of SLE. SLE rashes are typically erythematous and photosensitive, like the malar rash, or discoid with scaling. A grey papular rash suggests conditions like lichen planus, not SLE, and including it risks misdiagnosis, delaying appropriate immunosuppressive therapy.
Choice D reason: Subcutaneous nodules on the ulnar arm are more typical of rheumatoid arthritis, not SLE. SLE may cause cutaneous lupus lesions, but nodules are rare. Expecting this finding could lead to confusion with other connective tissue diseases, misguiding assessment and delaying SLE-specific treatments like hydroxychloroquine
A nurse is assessing an older adult client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following spinal deformities should the nurse expect to find in the client?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ankylosis, fusion of spinal joints, is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, not osteoporosis. Osteoporosis causes bone density loss, leading to fractures and deformities like kyphosis, not joint fusion. Expecting ankylosis misaligns assessment, potentially overlooking osteoporosis-related vertebral compression fractures critical for managing mobility and pain in older adults.
Choice B reason: Kyphosis, an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, is common in osteoporosis due to vertebral compression fractures from weakened bones. These fractures collapse anteriorly, causing a hunchback appearance, affecting posture and balance. Recognizing kyphosis guides interventions like bracing or bisphosphonates to prevent further fractures and improve quality of life.
Choice C reason: Scoliosis, lateral spine curvature, is typically congenital or idiopathic, not directly caused by osteoporosis. While osteoporosis may exacerbate existing scoliosis through fractures, it’s not a primary deformity. Expecting scoliosis risks misdiagnosis, diverting focus from osteoporosis-related kyphosis and its management, like calcium supplementation or physical therapy.
Choice D reason: Lordosis, exaggerated lumbar curvature, is not typical in osteoporosis. Osteoporosis primarily affects thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis from compression fractures. Lordosis may occur in other conditions like muscular imbalances, but expecting it in osteoporosis misguides assessment, delaying interventions for fracture prevention and spinal stability in older adults.
Assessment findings that the nurse would expect in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who has articular involvement include
Explanation
Choice A reason: Morning stiffness lasting 60 minutes or more is a hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) due to synovial inflammation in affected joints. This prolonged stiffness, worse after inactivity, reflects autoimmune-mediated synovitis, distinguishing RA from osteoarthritis. Recognizing this guides diagnosis and treatment with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) to reduce joint damage.
Choice B reason: Bamboo-shaped fingers are characteristic of psoriatic arthritis, not RA. RA causes joint deformities like swan-neck or boutonnière due to synovial destruction, not a bamboo appearance. Expecting this finding risks misdiagnosis, delaying RA-specific therapies like methotrexate, which target inflammation and prevent progressive joint erosion.
Choice C reason: Asymmetric small joint involvement is typical of osteoarthritis or psoriatic arthritis, not RA. RA features symmetric involvement of small joints, like metacarpophalangeal joints, due to systemic autoimmune inflammation. Assuming asymmetry misguides assessment, potentially overlooking RA’s bilateral pattern critical for early diagnosis and effective immunosuppressive treatment.
Choice D reason: Noninflammatory pain in large joints is not typical of RA, which involves inflammatory pain in small joints due to synovitis. Large joint pain may occur in osteoarthritis or gout. Expecting noninflammatory pain misdirects RA diagnosis, delaying interventions like corticosteroids or biologics to manage inflammation and joint destruction.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of fibromyalgia. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increasing caffeine intake is not recommended for fibromyalgia, as it can exacerbate sleep disturbances and anxiety, common in the condition. Fibromyalgia management focuses on improving sleep, reducing pain, and enhancing function through exercise and medications. This statement reflects misunderstanding, potentially worsening symptoms and hindering effective self-management strategies.
Choice B reason: Taking duloxetine in the morning is reasonable but not the best indicator of fibromyalgia teaching comprehension. Duloxetine, a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, helps pain and mood but isn’t primarily for energy. This statement shows partial understanding, missing broader management strategies like exercise, which are central to fibromyalgia care.
Choice C reason: Chemotherapy is irrelevant for fibromyalgia, a non-inflammatory pain syndrome, not a malignancy. This statement indicates a significant misunderstanding of fibromyalgia’s nature and treatment, which involves exercise, medications like duloxetine, and cognitive therapies. Expecting a cure via chemotherapy misaligns expectations, delaying effective symptom management and patient education.
Choice D reason: Low-impact aerobics reduce fibromyalgia pain by improving muscle conditioning, circulation, and endorphin release, supported by evidence-based guidelines. This statement reflects understanding of nonpharmacological management, a cornerstone of fibromyalgia treatment, promoting physical function and pain relief, and aligning with comprehensive care to enhance quality of life.
During assessment of the patient diagnosed with fibromyalgia, what would the nurse expect the patient to report in addition to widespread pain?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nonrestorative sleep with fatigue is a core fibromyalgia symptom, alongside widespread pain. Disrupted sleep architecture, including reduced deep sleep, exacerbates pain sensitivity and fatigue, driven by central nervous system dysregulation. Recognizing this guides management with sleep hygiene, medications like amitriptyline, and exercise to improve sleep quality and reduce fatigue.
Choice B reason: Fibromyalgia does not involve inflammation or fever, unlike rheumatoid arthritis. It’s a noninflammatory pain syndrome with central sensitization. Expecting inflammation or fever misdiagnoses fibromyalgia, potentially leading to inappropriate treatments like corticosteroids, which are ineffective, delaying proper care with antidepressants or physical therapy for pain and fatigue.
Choice C reason: Generalized muscle twitching and spasms are not typical fibromyalgia symptoms. These suggest neurological conditions like myoclonus or electrolyte imbalances. Fibromyalgia involves diffuse pain and tenderness, not spasms. Assuming twitching misguides assessment, risking incorrect interventions and overlooking fibromyalgia’s core symptoms like sleep disturbance and fatigue.
Choice D reason: Profound muscle weakness limiting ADLs is characteristic of neuromuscular diseases like myasthenia gravis, not fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia causes pain and fatigue, not progressive weakness. Expecting weakness misdirects diagnosis, potentially leading to unnecessary neurological testing, delaying fibromyalgia management with exercise, cognitive therapy, and medications to address pain and fatigue.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a puncture wound on his foot. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of acute osteomyelitis?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Localized erythema is a key manifestation of acute osteomyelitis, reflecting bacterial infection (often Staphylococcus aureus) in bone tissue following a puncture wound. Inflammation causes vasodilation and immune cell infiltration, producing redness, warmth, and swelling. Recognizing this prompts urgent antibiotic therapy and possible surgical debridement to prevent bone destruction and systemic infection.
Choice B reason: Hypothermia is not typical of acute osteomyelitis, which often presents with fever due to systemic inflammatory response to bone infection. Hypothermia may occur in sepsis or unrelated conditions but isn’t a hallmark. Expecting hypothermia misguides assessment, potentially delaying critical interventions like antibiotics for osteomyelitis’s infectious process.
Choice C reason: Bradycardia is not associated with acute osteomyelitis, which may cause tachycardia from fever and inflammation. Bradycardia suggests cardiac or autonomic issues, not bone infection. Assuming bradycardia misdirects focus from osteomyelitis’s infectious signs like erythema, risking delayed treatment and progression to chronic infection or abscess formation.
Choice D reason: Numbness of toes suggests nerve compression or vascular compromise, not acute osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis causes localized pain, erythema, and swelling from bone infection, not sensory loss. Expecting numbness misdiagnoses the condition, potentially overlooking infection and delaying antibiotics or surgical intervention critical for preventing bone necrosis and systemic spread.
A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has an intracapsular fracture of the right hip following a fall about the purpose of Buck’s extension traction. The nurse should include which of the following information in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A reason: Buck’s traction does not maintain pin alignment, as it’s a skin traction method using weights and pulleys, not skeletal pins. It’s applied preoperatively for hip fractures to stabilize the limb. Expecting pin alignment misguides teaching, confusing Buck’s traction with skeletal traction, potentially causing patient misunderstanding of the procedure’s purpose.
Choice B reason: Buck’s traction does not reduce the fracture (realign bone ends), which requires surgical or manual reduction. It stabilizes the hip, relieving spasms and pain preoperatively. Assuming reduction misleads the patient, risking unrealistic expectations and overlooking Buck’s role in muscle relaxation and temporary immobilization for intracapsular fractures.
Choice C reason: Buck’s traction restricts movement to stabilize the hip, not allow supported movement. Movement could worsen fracture displacement or pain. Expecting movement misinforms the patient, potentially leading to improper use of traction, increasing complications like malunion or muscle spasms in the fractured hip.
Choice D reason: Buck’s extension traction relieves muscle spasms in intracapsular hip fractures by applying gentle, continuous pull to align the limb and reduce muscle contraction around the fracture site. This decreases pain and stabilizes the hip preoperatively, preventing further displacement. Accurate teaching ensures patient understanding, promoting compliance and effective preoperative management.
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