Ati medical surgical 2 final 2024 assessment
Ati medical surgical 2 final 2024 assessment
Total Questions : 135
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is caring for an older adult client who had a femoral head fracture 24 hours ago and is in skin traction. The client reports shortness of breath and dyspnea. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed which of the following complications?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung, can indeed cause shortness of breath and dyspnea. However, it is typically associated with a sudden onset of these symptoms following a chest injury or spontaneously in the case of a ruptured air blister. In the context of a femoral head fracture, pneumothorax is less likely unless there was additional trauma to the chest area.
Choice B reason:
Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that leads to inflammation of the air sacs, causing them to fill with fluid or pus. Symptoms include cough with phlegm, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. While pneumonia could cause dyspnea, it usually develops due to an infectious process rather than directly from a femoral head fracture.
Choice C reason:
Airway obstruction involves a blockage that prevents air from passing freely to the lungs. It can be caused by foreign objects, swelling due to allergic reactions, or other medical conditions. The symptoms of airway obstruction include difficulty breathing, wheezing, and potential changes in skin color. However, airway obstruction is not commonly a direct complication of a femoral head fracture.
Choice D reason:
Fat embolism syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and lodge within the pulmonary vasculature, leading to respiratory distress. It is a known complication following long bone fractures, such as the femur, and presents with symptoms like shortness of breath, hypoxemia, and neurological manifestations. Given the recent femoral head fracture and the symptoms reported, fat embolism syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is being treated with chemotherapy and radiation for metastatic breast cancer and who has neutropenia. The nurse should include which of the following restrictions in the client's plan of care?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Activities that could result in bleeding should be minimized for a client with neutropenia due to the increased risk of infection from open wounds. However, this is not the primary restriction related to neutropenia itself but rather a general precaution for patients with low platelet counts or other clotting issues.
Choice B reason:
Restricting all visitors from entering the client's room is not necessary unless the visitors are sick or have been exposed to infectious diseases. Neutropenic patients are at increased risk for infection, so visitors should be screened for illness, but complete isolation is not required.
Choice C reason:
Modifying oral fluid intake to between meals only is not a standard restriction for neutropenic patients. Adequate hydration is essential, and there are no specific neutropenia-related reasons to restrict fluids to between meals.
Choice D reason:
Fresh flowers and potted plants should be avoided in the room of a neutropenic patient. They can harbor fungi and other microorganisms that could cause infection in an immunocompromised individual. Neutropenic precautions typically include avoiding standing water and plants that may contain harmful bacteria or fungi.
A nurse is caring for a client who has fibrocystic breasts. The client asks the nurse, "What will happen to my fibrocystic breast changes after menopause?" Which of the following statements is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Telling a client that they will be at an increased risk of breast cancer due to fibrocystic breast changes would be incorrect. Fibrocystic breast changes are not directly linked to an increased risk of breast cancer. While the presence of complex fibrocystic changes may slightly elevate the risk, fibrocystic breasts themselves are a common and benign condition.
Choice B reason:
It is not accurate to say that the manifestations of fibrocystic breasts often get worse after menopause. In fact, fibrocystic changes are related to hormone levels, and most women experience relief from these symptoms after menopause when hormone levels decline.
Choice C reason:
Stating that menopause won't have any effect on the manifestations is also incorrect. Menopause typically leads to a decrease in hormone levels, which are associated with fibrocystic breast changes. Therefore, most women see an improvement in their symptoms after menopause.
Choice D reason:
The most appropriate response is that the manifestations usually go away after menopause. Fibrocystic breast changes are linked to hormonal fluctuations, and after menopause, when these fluctuations cease, the symptoms of fibrocystic breasts typically resolve.
A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic wound. Which of the following is a systemic cause of chronic wounds?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Venous insufficiency can contribute to the development of chronic wounds, particularly in the lower extremities. It is characterized by the inability of the veins to adequately return blood from the legs back to the heart, which can lead to pooling of blood and increased pressure in the veins. This can cause skin changes and ulcers, particularly around the ankles.
Choice B reason:
Malnutrition is indeed a systemic cause of chronic wounds. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing, as it provides the necessary proteins, vitamins, and minerals that play a crucial role in the repair process. Protein-energy malnutrition, deficiencies in vitamins C and D, zinc, and other nutrients can impair wound healing and lead to chronic wounds.
Choice C reason:
Infection is typically a local rather than a systemic cause of chronic wounds. While systemic infections can affect wound healing, local wound infections are more directly responsible for delayed healing and the chronicity of wounds. Bacteria can colonize the wound and impede the healing process, leading to a chronic wound.
Choice D reason:
Continued pressure, much like infection, is generally a local cause of chronic wounds. It is most commonly associated with the development of pressure ulcers in individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. The constant pressure on certain areas of the body can lead to tissue ischemia and necrosis, resulting in a chronic wound.
A nurse is caring for a client who has lung cancer and is scheduled for a lobectomy. The nurse should prepare the client to expect which of the following after the procedure?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
While pulmonary function studies are an important part of the preoperative assessment and postoperative follow-up for lung cancer patients, they are not typically something a patient would be immediately prepared for post-lobectomy. These studies are usually scheduled for a later date to assess the impact of the surgery on lung function.
Choice B reason:
A sternal incision is not commonly associated with a lobectomy, which involves an incision in the chest wall, not the sternum. Sternal incisions are more often related to procedures that require access to the heart or the central chest area, such as open-heart surgery.
Choice C reason:
Moderate pain is expected after any major surgical procedure, including a lobectomy. However, pain management is a standard part of postoperative care, and patients are typically informed about pain control measures rather than being prepared to expect pain as a postoperative event.
Choice D reason:
The placement of a chest tube is a standard part of care following a lobectomy. The chest tube allows for drainage of fluid and air from the pleural space, ensuring proper lung expansion and preventing complications such as pneumothorax. Patients should be educated about the chest tube's purpose, care, and the sensations they may experience while the tube is in place.
A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about limiting foods that are high in potassium. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Raisins are dried grapes and are known to have a higher concentration of nutrients, including potassium. For individuals with chronic kidney disease (CKD), consuming foods like raisins that are high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition where potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can be dangerous as it may cause heart rhythm problems.
Choice B reason:
Asparagus is considered a lower-potassium food, making it a safer choice for people with CKD. It's important for individuals with CKD to manage their potassium intake, but asparagus can be included in their diet in appropriate portions.
Choice C reason:
Bananas are well-known for being rich in potassium. For someone with CKD, eating bananas can contribute to an excessive intake of potassium, which their kidneys may not be able to eliminate efficiently, potentially leading to hyperkalemia.
Choice D reason:
Tomatoes, including tomato products like sauces, juices, and purees, are high in potassium. Therefore, they should be limited or avoided in the diet of a person with CKD to prevent complications associated with high potassium levels.
Choice E reason:
Green beans are considered to be a lower-potassium vegetable. They can be included in a kidney-friendly diet, provided they are consumed in moderation and balanced with other dietary needs.
A nurse is caring for a 68-kg (150-lb) client who has dehydration. Which of the following manifestations is an indication of effective treatment?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Lightheadedness is generally not an indication of effective treatment for dehydration. It is often a symptom of dehydration itself, as it can result from decreased blood volume and reduced blood flow to the brain. Effective rehydration should alleviate symptoms like lightheadedness, not present as an indication of it.
Choice B reason:
Decreased pulse pressure may indicate a drop in the volume of blood circulating through the body, which is not a sign of effective rehydration. Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings, and a narrow pulse pressure can be a sign of hypovolemia, or low blood volume, often due to dehydration.
Choice C reason:
Urine output of 75 mL in 1 hr can be considered within the normal range of urine output for an adult, which is typically about 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr⁵. This indicates that the kidneys are functioning and the body is excreting waste, suggesting effective rehydration.
Choice D reason:
A urine specific gravity of 1.038 is higher than the normal range of 1.005 to 1.030[^10^]. This indicates concentrated urine, which is commonly seen in dehydration as the body attempts to conserve water. Therefore, this is not an indication of effective treatment for dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a left radical mastectomy. Which of the following behaviors should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is having difficulty adjusting to the loss of her breast?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Asking questions about the information on her postoperative care pamphlet is a positive behavior indicating that the client is proactive in understanding her care and recovery process. It shows engagement and a desire to comply with medical advice, which is beneficial for recovery.
Choice B reason:
Refusing to look at the dressing or surgical incision may indicate psychological distress and difficulty in accepting the physical changes following a mastectomy. This behavior can be a sign of avoidance and a potential struggle with body image and the emotional impact of breast loss. It's important for healthcare providers to recognize this as a call for psychological support and possible referral to counseling services.
Choice C reason:
Performing arm exercises once or twice a day is typically recommended as part of the postoperative care after a mastectomy to prevent stiffness and improve mobility. This behavior suggests that the client is following postoperative instructions and actively participating in her recovery.
A nurse is teaching a group of teenage clients about the use of condoms for the prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The statement about using a natural membrane condom rather than a polyurethane condom is incorrect. Natural membrane condoms, such as those made from lambskin, have small pores that can allow viruses to pass through. Therefore, they are not recommended for the prevention of STIs. Polyurethane condoms, on the other hand, do not have these pores and are considered effective in preventing STIs, including HIV.
Choice B reason:
Female condoms, also known as internal condoms, are effective in preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted viruses, including HIV. They act as a barrier to prevent the exchange of bodily fluids during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of STI transmission. It's important to include this information in the teaching as it empowers individuals with an additional option for protection.
Choice C reason:
Condoms are designed for single use only. Using a condom more than once greatly increases the risk of condom failure, which can lead to the transmission of STIs or unintended pregnancy. It is crucial to emphasize the importance of using a new condom for each act of sexual intercourse.
Choice D reason:
Oil-based lubricants should not be used with latex condoms as they can weaken the material, leading to condom breakage. Instead, water-based or silicone-based lubricants are recommended as they do not damage the condom and can help prevent breakage.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports low back pain and asks the nurse for specific exercise recommendations. Which of the following activities should the nurse suggest?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Tennis may not be the best recommendation for someone with low back pain. The sport requires quick lateral movements, sudden stops, and starts, as well as repetitive twisting motions that can exacerbate back pain. While it provides good general exercise, the high-impact nature of tennis and the strain it puts on the back could potentially worsen the client's condition.
Choice B reason:
Canoeing involves repetitive rowing actions that can strain the lower back, especially if the individual does not use proper form. The seated position in a canoe may also put additional pressure on the lower back. Therefore, it might not be the most suitable activity for someone experiencing low back pain.
Choice C reason:
Rowing, similar to canoeing, can place stress on the lower back due to the repetitive motion and the need for strong engagement of the core muscles. If not performed with proper technique, rowing could lead to increased back pain and is not typically recommended for those with existing low back issues.
Choice D reason:
Swimming is often recommended for individuals with low back pain because it is a low-impact exercise that does not put additional stress on the spine. The buoyancy of the water supports the body, reducing the load on the back while allowing for a full range of motion. Swimming can help strengthen the back muscles and improve flexibility, making it a suitable activity for managing low back pain.
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