NS113 Paediatrics exam
ATI NS113 Paediatrics exam
Total Questions : 53
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreWhat is a key sign the nurse might expect the caregiver to report?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Blank staring for prolonged periods is not a typical sign of otitis media. While changes in behavior can occur with illness, this specific symptom is more indicative of neurological issues like absence seizures rather than an ear infection. Neurological assessments would be necessary to evaluate this finding, which is outside the typical presentation of otitis media.
Choice B rationale
Rubbing or pulling at the affected ear is a common behavioral manifestation of otitis media in young children. The inflammation and pressure within the middle ear cause pain and discomfort, leading the child to touch or tug at their ear in an attempt to alleviate the sensation. This localized physical sign strongly suggests an issue within the ear itself.
Choice C rationale
Hyperactivity is not a primary indicator of otitis media. While a child experiencing discomfort might be irritable or restless, true hyperactivity is a distinct behavioral pattern often associated with other conditions like attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and is not directly linked to a middle ear infection.
Choice D rationale
Excessive sleepiness is not a typical presenting symptom of otitis media. While a child might be slightly more tired due to the general discomfort of an infection, excessive somnolence would be more concerning for a systemic illness or a neurological issue, rather than a localized ear infection.
Which assessment should the nurse prioritize upon the child's arrival?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Observing for signs of respiratory distress is the priority assessment for a child with burns to the face and neck. Burns in this area can lead to airway edema and compromise, which can rapidly become life-threatening. Assessing for stridor, hoarseness, difficulty breathing, and changes in respiratory rate and effort is crucial for immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring vital signs for indications of shock is important in burn patients due to fluid shifts and potential hypovolemia. However, airway patency takes precedence, as inadequate oxygenation will quickly lead to irreversible damage. Vital signs should be monitored continuously after ensuring the airway is secure.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a detailed history of the burn incident is necessary for understanding the mechanism of injury and potential associated trauma. However, the immediate priority is to assess and manage any threats to the child's airway, breathing, and circulation. History taking can occur once the child is stable.
Choice D rationale
Evaluating the extent and depth of the burns is crucial for determining the severity of the injury and guiding fluid resuscitation and wound care. However, ensuring a patent airway and adequate breathing is the immediate priority upon the child's arrival in the emergency department.
The infant has a normal physical exam, is gaining weight appropriately, and feeds well.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend to the parent to help manage the infant's symptoms?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Providing tummy time immediately after each feeding is generally discouraged for infants, especially those with reflux or colic-like symptoms. It can increase pressure on the abdomen and potentially worsen discomfort or lead to spitting up. Tummy time is beneficial for development but should be done when the infant is awake and not immediately after eating.
Choice B rationale
Changing the infant's formula to a soy-based formula is not a first-line recommendation for managing inconsolable crying in a 6-week-old with a normal physical exam and weight gain. While some infants may have sensitivities to cow's milk protein, a formula change should only be considered after other potential causes, like colic, have been explored and under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale
Administering omeprazole drops, a proton pump inhibitor that reduces stomach acid, is not indicated for a 6-week-old infant with inconsolable crying, normal weight gain, and feeding. Omeprazole is used to treat conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with documented symptoms beyond typical infant spitting up. Routine use for crying is not recommended and could have potential side effects.
Choice D rationale
Offering soothing techniques such as swaddling and rhythmic rocking are evidence-based interventions for managing inconsolable crying in young infants, often associated with colic. Swaddling provides a sense of security, mimicking the womb, while rhythmic rocking can be calming and help regulate the infant's nervous system. These non-pharmacological approaches are recommended as initial management strategies for unexplained crying in healthy infants.
They report spending time hiking in wooded areas two weeks ago.
Identify what arachnid caused this rash, and what is the name of the disease that can be.
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A tick is the arachnid responsible for transmitting Lyme disease. The characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease is erythema migrans, often described as a "bull's-eye" rash, which can appear days to weeks after a bite from an infected blacklegged tick (Ixodes scapularis or Ixodes pacificus). Spending time in wooded areas increases the risk of tick exposure.
Choice B rationale
Spiders are arachnids, but they are not the primary vector for Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected American dog ticks (Dermacentor variabilis) or Rocky Mountain wood ticks (Dermacentor andersoni). The rash associated with this disease typically starts on the wrists and ankles and spreads centrally.
Choice C rationale
Mites are arachnids, and certain types cause scabies, a contagious skin infestation characterized by intense itching and a pimple-like rash due to the burrowing of the Sarcoptes scabiei mite into the skin. While hiking in wooded areas could potentially lead to exposure to some types of mites, the rash of scabies has a distinct presentation and transmission pattern different from Lyme disease.
Choice D rationale
Chiggers are also mites (arachnids) that can be found in wooded areas. Their bites cause chigger dermatitis, characterized by intensely itchy red welts or bumps where the larvae have attached to the skin. While the history of hiking is relevant to potential exposure to chiggers, the rash and the associated disease are distinct from the erythema migrans rash of Lyme disease. .
Which intervention is most appropriate?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Analgesics might mask pain, which is an important indicator of the child's condition and potential complications. While pain management is crucial, it is not the most immediate or specific intervention for hematuria in acute glomerulonephritis. The primary focus is on managing the kidney inflammation and its effects.
Choice B rationale
A high-protein diet is generally contraindicated in acute glomerulonephritis, especially when kidney function is compromised. Damaged glomeruli struggle to filter protein waste products, leading to increased urea and potential azotemia. Dietary protein is usually restricted during the acute phase to reduce the workload on the kidneys.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring urine output is essential in acute glomerulonephritis as it directly reflects kidney function. Reduced urine output (oliguria) or its cessation (anuria) can indicate worsening kidney failure. Close monitoring helps assess the severity of the condition and the effectiveness of treatment interventions aimed at preserving renal function. Normal urine output for children varies with age and weight but is generally around 1-2 mL/kg/hour.
Choice D rationale
While maintaining adequate hydration is important, encouraging excessive fluid intake in a child with acute glomerulonephritis and hematuria can lead to fluid overload. Impaired kidney function can result in the inability to excrete excess fluid, potentially causing hypertension, edema, and even heart failure. Fluid balance must be carefully managed.
What type of burn is this?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A first-degree burn involves only the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. It is characterized by redness (erythema), pain, and dryness, without the formation of blisters. The superficial damage affects the outer layer of epithelial cells, causing vasodilation and inflammation, leading to the observed redness and discomfort.
Choice B rationale
A second-degree burn involves the epidermis and a portion of the dermis, the layer beneath the epidermis. These burns are characterized by blisters, significant pain, redness, and swelling. The damage extends deeper into the skin, affecting nerve endings and blood vessels, leading to fluid leakage and blister formation.
Choice C rationale
A third-degree burn involves the destruction of the epidermis and the entire dermis, potentially extending into the subcutaneous tissue. These burns appear white or charred, are often painless initially due to nerve damage, and lack blisters. The full thickness destruction of skin layers impairs sensation and requires significant medical intervention, often including skin grafting.
Choice D rationale
Full-thickness burn is another term for a third-degree burn, indicating that all layers of the skin have been destroyed. This type of burn extends through the epidermis and dermis and may involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, muscle, or bone. The appearance is typically dry, leathery, and may be white, charred, or waxy.
What layer of the skin is affected?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, providing a protective barrier against the external environment. A first-degree burn, characterized by redness and pain without blisters, affects only this superficial layer. The heat causes vasodilation in the dermal blood vessels beneath the epidermis, resulting in the visible redness.
Choice B rationale
The dermis is the layer of skin beneath the epidermis, containing structures like hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. Second-degree burns extend into the dermis, causing damage to these structures and leading to blister formation due to fluid leakage from damaged blood vessels within this layer.
Choice C rationale
The subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis) is the deepest layer of the skin, composed mainly of fat and connective tissue. Third-degree or full-thickness burns extend into this layer, damaging or destroying it along with the epidermis and dermis.
Choice D rationale
Muscle tissue lies beneath the subcutaneous tissue and is not typically directly affected in a superficial burn that only causes redness without blisters. Burns that reach muscle tissue are very deep and would present with significant tissue damage and likely charring.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Immersing a first-degree burn in cool tap water for at least 10 minutes helps to cool the burned tissue, reducing pain, inflammation, and the extent of tissue damage. The cool water dissipates the heat absorbed by the skin, preventing further injury to the epidermal cells and underlying tissues.
Choice B rationale
Covering a fresh burn with a dry, sterile gauze bandage is important to protect it from contamination and further injury after it has been adequately cooled. However, the immediate initial action should focus on stopping the burning process and cooling the affected area to minimize tissue damage.
Choice C rationale
Applying a topical antibiotic ointment is generally recommended for burns to prevent infection, but this is not the most appropriate initial action immediately after the burn occurs. Cooling the burn takes precedence to reduce heat damage. Antibiotic ointment is usually applied after the initial cooling and cleaning of the wound.
Choice D rationale
Applying an ice pack directly to a burn can cause further tissue damage due to vasoconstriction and potential frostbite. While cooling is beneficial, it should be done gently with cool running water or immersion in cool tap water, not with intense cold like an ice pack directly on the skin.
What developmental stage is this consistent with?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The industry vs inferiority stage, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, occurs during middle childhood (approximately 6 to 12 years). Children in this stage focus on mastering new skills and knowledge, developing a sense of competence and industry through activities like building models and participating in team sports. Success in these endeavors leads to a feeling of accomplishment, while failure can result in feelings of inferiority.
Choice B rationale
The initiative vs guilt stage occurs during the preschool years (approximately 3 to 5 years). Children in this stage are eager to take on new tasks and activities, developing a sense of initiative. However, if their efforts are met with criticism or failure, they may develop feelings of guilt.
Choice C rationale
The autonomy vs shame and doubt stage occurs during early childhood (approximately 18 months to 3 years). Children in this stage are focused on developing independence and self-control. Success in achieving autonomy leads to feelings of confidence, while failure can result in shame and doubt about their abilities.
Choice D rationale
The identity vs role confusion stage occurs during adolescence (approximately 12 to 18 years). During this stage, individuals are exploring their sense of self and trying to establish their identity in various aspects of life. Failure to establish a clear sense of identity can lead to role confusion.
Which finding supports a diagnosis of intussusception?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Currant jelly stools (stools mixed with blood and mucus) and drawing the knees to the chest are classic signs and symptoms of intussusception in infants. The telescoping of one part of the intestine into another leads to bowel obstruction, inflammation, and bleeding, resulting in the characteristic stool appearance and abdominal pain that causes the infant to draw their knees up in an attempt to relieve the discomfort.
Choice B rationale
Ribbon-like stools and visible peristalsis are more characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon), a condition where a segment of the colon lacks nerve cells, impairing motility and leading to constipation and a narrowed segment of the bowel. Visible peristalsis can occur due to the bowel trying to push stool through the narrowed segment.
Choice C rationale
Explosive watery diarrhea and fever are typical signs of gastroenteritis, an inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract usually caused by a viral or bacterial infection. While vomiting can occur in both conditions, the stool characteristics and the presence of fever are more indicative of gastroenteritis rather than intussusception.
Choice D rationale
Bright red blood in the stool without other symptoms is less specific to intussusception. While blood can be present, it is usually mixed with mucus, giving the currant jelly appearance. Bright red blood alone might suggest other conditions like anal fissures or lower gastrointestinal bleeding. .
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