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Ati pharmacology assessment 1
Ati pharmacology assessment 1
Total Questions : 55
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is caring for a client who has hyperlipidemia and a new prescription for colesevelam. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of colesevelam?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of colesevelam. Colesevelam is primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and can also help control blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes.
Choice B rationale
Stomatitis, or inflammation of the mouth, is not typically associated with colesevelam. This medication works in the intestines and is not absorbed into the bloodstream, so it does not commonly cause systemic side effects.
Choice C rationale
Fever is not a known adverse effect of colesevelam. The medication’s side effects are generally limited to the gastrointestinal system.
Choice D rationale
Constipation is a common adverse effect of colesevelam. This medication binds to bile acids in the intestines, which can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as constipation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to control seizures and is not indicated for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency.
Choice B rationale
Calcitonin is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and hypercalcemia, not adrenal insufficiency.
Choice C rationale
Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat anxiety disorders and is not used for adrenal insufficiency.
Choice D rationale
Fludrocortisone is a synthetic corticosteroid that is used to replace aldosterone in patients with adrenal insufficiency. It helps maintain sodium balance and blood pressure.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for methimazole for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Methimazole does not typically cause constipation. It is used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones.
Choice B rationale
A sore throat can be a sign of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of methimazole that involves a dangerously low white blood cell count. Patients are advised to contact their provider if they experience a sore throat.
Choice C rationale
While monitoring weight is important for patients with hyperthyroidism, it is not a specific instruction related to methimazole use.
Choice D rationale
Methimazole should be taken regularly as prescribed, not on an as-needed basis.
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department. The client is at risk for developing which of the following conditions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypercalcemia is not typically a risk in the emergency department unless the patient has a specific condition that causes elevated calcium levels.
Choice B rationale
Hypotension can occur in the emergency department, especially in cases of shock or severe dehydration, but it is not the most common risk.
Choice C rationale
Hypokalemia can occur, particularly in patients with certain medical conditions or those taking diuretics, but it is not the most common risk.
Choice D rationale
Hypernatremia can occur, especially in patients with dehydration or certain medical conditions, but it is not the most common risk.
Choice E rationale
Hypoglycemia is a common risk in the emergency department, especially in patients with diabetes or those who have not eaten for an extended period.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for folic acid. The client states, “I thought that was only given during pregnancy.”. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Folic acid is not primarily used to stimulate the immune system. Its main role is in the production of red blood cells and DNA synthesis.
Choice B rationale
Folic acid does not increase the absorption of other medications. It is used to prevent and treat folate deficiency.
Choice C rationale
Folic acid is not used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. It is important for cell growth and the production of red blood cells.
Choice D rationale
Folic acid is crucial for the building of blood cells and is especially important during periods of rapid cell division, such as pregnancy.
A nurse is preparing to administer mannitol IV to a client. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an expected outcome of this medication?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.
Choice B rationale
Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.
A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who experiences migraine headaches and has asked about a prescription for sumatriptan. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for taking sumatriptan?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Asthma is not a contraindication for sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is a selective serotonin receptor agonist used to treat migraines by constricting blood vessels in the brain. It does not have a significant impact on respiratory conditions like asthma.
Choice B rationale
Kidney disease is not a contraindication for sumatriptan. However, caution is advised when using sumatriptan in patients with severe renal impairment due to potential accumulation of the drug and its metabolites.
Choice C rationale
Rheumatoid arthritis is not a contraindication for sumatriptan. Sumatriptan’s mechanism of action does not interfere with the inflammatory processes involved in rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice D rationale
Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a contraindication for sumatriptan. Sumatriptan can cause vasoconstriction of coronary arteries, which can exacerbate CAD and increase the risk of myocardial infarction or other cardiac events.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for benzonatate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Benzonatate is a non-narcotic cough suppressant that works by numbing the throat and lungs, making the cough reflex less active. It can cause drowsiness and dizziness, so patients are advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery while taking this medication.
Choice B rationale
Benzonatate does not help in coughing up mucus. It suppresses the cough reflex, which can be beneficial for dry, irritating coughs but is not suitable for productive coughs where mucus needs to be expelled.
Choice C rationale
There is no need to decrease dietary fiber intake while taking benzonatate. Dietary fiber does not interact with the medication or its effectiveness.
Choice D rationale
Benzonatate capsules should not be chewed or crushed, as this can cause numbness of the mouth and throat, leading to potential choking hazards.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is starting to take immediate-release exenatide. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Immediate-release exenatide pens should be discarded 30 days after the first use, not two months. This ensures the medication remains effective and free from contamination.
Choice B rationale
Exenatide is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. The preferred injection sites are the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm.
Choice C rationale
Open exenatide pens should be stored at room temperature, but this is not the most critical aspect of patient education. Proper storage ensures the medication’s stability and effectiveness.
Choice D rationale
Immediate-release exenatide should be taken one hour before morning and evening meals to optimize its glucose-lowering effects by enhancing insulin secretion in response to meals.
A nurse is caring for a client who requires a transfusion of one unit of packed RBCs. The nurse receives the following prescription: “Diphenhydramine 50 mg by mouth once, one hour prior to transfusion.”. The nurse should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A standing prescription is an order that applies to all patients who meet certain criteria and is not specific to a single administration. It is used for routine treatments and does not apply to a one-time pre-transfusion medication.
Choice B rationale
A stat prescription is an urgent order that requires immediate administration, typically within minutes. It is used for emergency situations and does not apply to a pre-transfusion medication given one hour before the procedure.
Choice C rationale
A single prescription is a one-time order for a specific medication to be given at a specific time. In this case, diphenhydramine 50 mg by mouth once, one hour prior to transfusion, fits the definition of a single prescription.
Choice D rationale
A PRN (pro re nata) prescription is an order for medication to be given as needed based on the patient’s condition. It is not applicable to a scheduled pre-transfusion medication. .
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