Choice A rationale

Muscle rigidity is not commonly associated with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes muscle weakness, cramps, and possible paralysis, but not rigidity. Potassium is critical for muscle function, and low levels cause flaccid, not rigid muscles.

Choice B rationale

Hypokalemia does not cause bounding radial pulses. Instead, it can lead to weak and irregular pulses due to its effect on cardiac muscle excitability. Potassium is crucial for normal cardiac rhythm and contractility.

Choice C rationale

Hypokalemia causes depressed deep tendon reflexes due to reduced excitability of neurons. Normal potassium levels (3.5 to 5 mEq/L) are essential for proper neuromuscular function; low levels impair nerve impulse transmission.

Choice D rationale

Increased bowel motility is not a typical finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can cause decreased bowel motility and constipation due to reduced smooth muscle contraction. Potassium is vital for smooth muscle activity.

Choice A rationale

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) monitors liver function. While captopril is metabolized by the liver, it is not the most critical value to monitor. Elevated ALT may indicate liver damage, but it is not a primary concern with captopril.

Choice B rationale

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is related to thyroid function. Captopril does not typically affect thyroid function, so monitoring TSH levels is not a priority. The focus is on electrolytes and kidney function with captopril.

Choice C rationale

Potassium monitoring is essential due to the risk of hyperkalemia with captopril. Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels by reducing aldosterone secretion. Normal potassium range is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L.

Choice D rationale

Magnesium levels are important for various bodily functions, but captopril does not significantly affect magnesium. Monitoring potassium and renal function is more critical due to the potential for hyperkalemia with captopril. .

Choice A rationale

Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that inhibits viral DNA synthesis. It reduces the severity and duration of varicella-zoster virus symptoms by targeting the virus directly.

Choice B rationale

Vancomycin is an antibiotic effective against Gram-positive bacteria. It is not effective against viral infections like varicella-zoster, which requires antiviral treatment.

Choice C rationale

Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used to treat Gram-negative bacterial infections. It is ineffective against varicella-zoster virus, which is a viral infection.

Choice D rationale

Quinine is an antimalarial medication used to treat malaria. It does not have antiviral properties and is not effective against varicella-zoster virus.

Choice A rationale

Infiltration of the peripheral IV can cause tissue damage and decreased medication efficacy. Immediate intervention is required to prevent complications.

Choice B rationale

Increased blood pressure can be a common effect of dopamine infusion. Monitoring and dose adjustment may be needed, but it is not an immediate threat.

Choice C rationale

Occasional PVCs can occur with dopamine infusion. While monitoring is necessary, they are not immediately life-threatening and may not require urgent intervention.

Choice D rationale

A heart rate of 105/min is a common side effect of dopamine and does not usually necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms.

Choice A rationale

Frequent sputum tests are necessary to monitor the effectiveness of isoniazid in treating tuberculosis, ensuring the bacteria are effectively being eradicated.

Choice B rationale

Isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis typically lasts 6-9 months. Stopping after 1 month would be ineffective and could lead to drug resistance.

Choice C rationale

Antacids containing aluminum can interfere with the absorption of isoniazid, reducing its effectiveness. They should not be taken together.

Choice D rationale

Constipation is not a common side effect of isoniazid. Common side effects include peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity. .

Choice A rationale

Granisetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, a common adverse effect of topotecan.

Choice B rationale

Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin used to manage blood glucose levels in diabetic patients, not to treat adverse effects of topotecan.

Choice C rationale

Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to prevent constipation by increasing the water content of stool, unrelated to topotecan's adverse effects.

Choice D rationale

Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to treat inflammation and immune responses, but it is not specifically indicated for the adverse effects of topotecan.

Choice A rationale

Terazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker used primarily to treat hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and improving blood flow.

Choice B rationale

Terazosin is not indicated for heart failure treatment as it does not have direct effects on improving cardiac function or reducing fluid overload.

Choice C rationale

Male pattern baldness is typically treated with medications like minoxidil or finasteride, not terazosin, which targets alpha-1 receptors.

Choice D rationale

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is also treated with terazosin as it relaxes the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow.

Choice E rationale

Erectile dysfunction is managed with medications like sildenafil or tadalafil, which work by enhancing blood flow, not through alpha-1 adrenergic blockade.

Choice A rationale

Leuprolide decreases testosterone production by acting as a GnRH agonist, initially stimulating then downregulating GnRH receptors in the pituitary gland, reducing LH and FSH levels.

Choice B rationale

Leuprolide does not kill cells at all stages of cellular division; it specifically reduces hormone levels to slow hormone-sensitive cancer growth.

Choice C rationale

Leuprolide does not increase estrogen levels; its primary mechanism involves reducing testosterone levels to manage prostate cancer.

Choice D rationale

Leuprolide does not suppress growth hormone production; it specifically targets gonadotropin release to lower testosterone levels. .

Choice A rationale

Haloperidol can cause constipation as a side effect due to its anticholinergic properties. However, this is not the priority concern compared to more severe symptoms such as muscle stiffness.

Choice B rationale

Dry mouth is another anticholinergic effect of haloperidol, caused by decreased saliva production. While uncomfortable, it is not as critical as muscle stiffness, which may indicate more serious issues.

Choice C rationale

Daytime drowsiness can occur with haloperidol use due to its sedative effects on the central nervous system. Although it affects daily functioning, muscle stiffness presents a more immediate danger.

Choice D rationale

Muscle stiffness could indicate extrapyramidal symptoms or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, both serious complications of haloperidol. These conditions require immediate medical intervention to prevent further harm.

Choice A rationale

Educating the client on the consequences of not taking valproic acid is important for informed decision-making. Without the medication, seizure control may be compromised, leading to potential health risks.

Choice B rationale

Taking valproic acid with food can help minimize gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea by reducing gastric irritation and improving drug absorption.

Choice C rationale

Documenting the client's refusal in the medication administration record ensures accurate medical records and provides information for future healthcare decisions and assessments.

Choice D rationale

Enteric-coated formulations of valproic acid can reduce gastrointestinal irritation by allowing the drug to pass through the stomach and dissolve in the intestine.