Choice A reason: Solar radiation delivers approximately 99.97% of Earth's climate system energy. The sun emits electromagnetic waves, primarily in visible and infrared spectra, absorbed by Earth's surface and atmosphere. This energy fuels atmospheric circulation, ocean currents, and the hydrological cycle, establishing temperature gradients that drive global weather and climate patterns. Sunspot cycles cause minor variations but affirm solar dominance.

Choice B reason: Geothermal heat, from radioactive decay in Earth's core and mantle plus residual formation heat, contributes only about 0.025% to the climate energy budget. It powers volcanic activity and tectonic processes, with localized effects like geothermal springs, but its role in atmospheric or oceanic circulation is negligible compared to solar radiation’s extensive influence.

Choice C reason: Tidal forces, driven by gravitational interactions between Earth, the moon, and the sun, produce oceanic tides, contributing less than 0.001% to the climate system’s energy. Tides influence coastal mixing but lack the magnitude to drive atmospheric circulation or global climate, making them insignificant compared to solar radiation’s vast energy input.

Choice D reason: Human activities, such as fossil fuel burning and deforestation, release greenhouse gases, altering climate by trapping solar heat. These are secondary effects, not primary energy sources, with negligible direct energy contribution. They modify solar radiation absorption, acting as feedback mechanisms, not independent drivers like the sun’s direct energy.

Choice A reason: Arterial blood gases assess oxygenation and acid-base balance, critical for diagnosing respiratory distress severity. However, this diagnostic measure does not immediately relieve airway obstruction. Clearing secretions is prioritized to restore ventilation, as hypoxia can rapidly cause tissue damage or cardiac arrest in acute respiratory distress.

Choice B reason: Suctioning removes airway secretions, directly addressing breathing difficulty. Secretions obstruct airways, reducing oxygen delivery to alveoli and impairing gas exchange. Immediate suctioning restores patency, enhances ventilation, and prevents hypoxia, making it the priority intervention to stabilize the client’s respiratory function in acute distress.

Choice C reason: PRN analgesia addresses pain, which is not indicated as the primary issue. Pain relief does not resolve airway obstruction or improve breathing. Administering analgesia prematurely could mask respiratory symptoms, delaying critical airway management and potentially worsening hypoxia by neglecting the underlying obstruction.

Choice D reason: An antipyretic reduces fever, improving comfort but not addressing breathing difficulty. Fever is secondary, and treating it does not restore airway patency or oxygenation. Airway management is prioritized in respiratory distress to prevent hypoxia and ensure effective gas exchange before managing fever symptoms.

Choice A reason: Over-enunciating syllables emphasizes pronunciation, which may help with clarity but does not directly address hearing impairment. Age-related hearing loss (presbycusis) often involves difficulty processing rapid speech. Slowing speech is more effective, as over-enunciation may distort natural speech patterns, reducing comprehension in older adults with hearing deficits.

Choice B reason: Shouting increases volume but can distort speech and cause discomfort, worsening communication for those with presbycusis. High-frequency hearing loss in older adults makes loud sounds less effective, as they struggle with pitch discrimination. Slower, clear speech better facilitates understanding than shouting, which may also seem aggressive.

Choice C reason: Decreasing speaking speed enhances comprehension in older adults with hearing loss. Presbycusis impairs processing of rapid speech, particularly high-frequency sounds. Slow, clear speech allows more time for auditory processing, improving understanding without distorting sound or relying on less effective nonverbal cues, making it the optimal intervention.

Choice D reason: Exaggerating nonverbal expressions relies on visual cues, which does not address auditory comprehension. While gestures may supplement communication, they are insufficient for conveying detailed medical questions. Hearing-impaired clients primarily need auditory adjustments, like slower speech, to process verbal information effectively, making nonverbal exaggeration less appropriate.

Choice A reason: Open-angle glaucoma involves chronic optic nerve damage due to impaired aqueous humor drainage, not a reversible “angle” change. Medications reduce intraocular pressure but cannot restore anatomical angles. This response is inaccurate, as the condition requires lifelong management to prevent further nerve damage and vision loss.

Choice B reason: Open-angle glaucoma requires lifelong medication to maintain normal intraocular pressure, preventing optic nerve damage. Medications like prostaglandin analogs or beta-blockers enhance aqueous humor outflow or reduce production, controlling pressure long-term. This is the accurate response, as sustained pressure management is essential to preserve vision in chronic glaucoma.

Choice C reason: Reducing excess pressure is a goal of glaucoma treatment, but open-angle glaucoma is chronic, requiring ongoing medication even after pressure is lowered. This response is incomplete, as it suggests a temporary treatment, whereas lifelong therapy is needed to prevent pressure spikes and progressive optic nerve damage.

Choice D reason: Open-angle glaucoma is typically painless and not associated with swelling. Medications target intraocular pressure, not pain or inflammation. This response is inaccurate, as it misaligns with the pathophysiology of glaucoma, which involves optic nerve damage from pressure, not inflammatory or painful symptoms.

Choice A reason: A foreign body in the eye may cause irritation or damage but is not a contraindication for ketorolac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation. The nurse would ensure removal of the foreign body first, but ketorolac can be used post-removal if indicated.

Choice B reason: Radiation exposure, such as from UV light, may cause photokeratitis but is not a specific contraindication for ophthalmic ketorolac. The medication reduces inflammation and pain, which may be beneficial in such cases. The nurse should assess for other ocular conditions, but radiation exposure alone does not preclude its use.

Choice C reason: Chemical burns require immediate irrigation and specific treatments based on the chemical involved. Ketorolac may reduce pain and inflammation post-irrigation, but it is not contraindicated. The nurse should prioritize burn management, but chemical burns do not inherently prohibit ketorolac use compared to corneal abrasions.

Choice D reason: Corneal abrasions are a contraindication for ophthalmic ketorolac, as NSAIDs can delay corneal healing and increase the risk of complications like corneal ulceration. The nurse must review the medical record to confirm the absence of abrasions, as ketorolac is typically used for postoperative pain, not traumatic corneal injuries.

Choice A reason: Transparent dressings are semi-permeable, suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate. Stage 3 pressure injuries, with deeper tissue damage and granulation, require moisture-retentive dressings to support healing. Transparent dressings may not provide the moist environment needed for optimal granulation tissue formation and epithelialization in deeper wounds.

Choice B reason: Hydrocolloid gel dressings maintain a moist wound environment, ideal for stage 3 pressure injuries with granulation tissue. They promote autolytic debridement, support epithelialization, and protect the wound. This is the best choice, as gauze may adhere to granulation tissue, causing trauma during removal, unlike hydrocolloids, which foster healing.

Choice C reason: Leaving the dressing off exposes the wound to infection and drying, which impairs granulation tissue and delays healing. Stage 3 pressure injuries require a moist, protected environment. Consulting the provider may be appropriate for complex cases, but immediate dressing application is standard to maintain optimal wound conditions.

Choice D reason: Increasing dressing change frequency may disrupt granulation tissue and delay healing, especially with gauze, which can adhere to the wound bed. Stage 3 pressure injuries benefit from stable, moist environments provided by advanced dressings like hydrocolloids, not frequent changes that risk trauma and infection.

Choice A reason: Lactulose increases stool frequency and liquidity to excrete ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy. A reduction in liquid stools would indicate reduced effectiveness, as the medication’s cathartic effect is essential for ammonia removal. This is not the expected therapeutic response, as increased bowel movements are desired.

Choice B reason: Lactulose reduces blood ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting its excretion in stool, improving mental status. Ammonia accumulation causes neurological symptoms like confusion. Improved cognition and alertness are the primary therapeutic goals, making this the expected response to effective lactulose therapy.

Choice C reason: Ambulation ability is unrelated to lactulose’s mechanism in hepatic encephalopathy. While improved mental status may indirectly aid mobility, lactulose directly targets ammonia reduction, not physical function. This is not the primary therapeutic response, as the medication addresses neurological, not musculoskeletal, symptoms in this condition.

Choice D reason: Lactulose does not directly affect urine output, as it acts in the gastrointestinal tract to excrete ammonia. While hydration status may influence urine, the medication’s primary effect is on bowel movements and ammonia reduction, not renal function, making this an incorrect therapeutic expectation.

Choice A reason: HIV does not primarily cause a deficiency in antibody production. B-cells produce antibodies, but HIV targets CD4 T-cells, impairing their ability to activate B-cells. This indirectly reduces antibody effectiveness, but the primary mechanism is T-cell destruction, not a direct antibody production deficit, making this incorrect.

Choice B reason: HIV infects and destroys helper T-cells (CD4 cells), critical for coordinating immune responses. By reducing CD4 cell counts, HIV impairs activation of B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells, leading to immune suppression. This is the primary mechanism of AIDS-related immune deficiency, making it the correct explanation for HIV pathology.

Choice C reason: Proliferation of suppressor T-cells (regulatory T-cells) is not a primary HIV mechanism. HIV depletes CD4 cells, not suppressor T-cells, which modulate immune responses. While immune dysregulation occurs, the hallmark is CD4 destruction, not suppressor T-cell proliferation, making this an inaccurate description of HIV’s action.

Choice D reason: HIV does not increase B-lymphocyte numbers. It impairs B-cell function indirectly by destroying CD4 cells, which are needed to activate B-cells for antibody production. B-cell hyperactivity may occur in early HIV, but the primary immune suppression results from CD4 cell loss, not B-cell proliferation.

Choice A reason: Throat irritation is a common albuterol side effect due to its deposition in the oropharynx during inhalation. It is not life-threatening and can be managed with rinsing or spacer use. This does not require immediate intervention compared to cardiovascular effects, as it does not compromise vital organ function.

Choice B reason: Uncontrollable shaking (tremors) is a frequent albuterol side effect, resulting from beta-2 receptor stimulation in skeletal muscles. It is usually transient and benign, not requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring is sufficient unless severe, as it does not pose an acute threat compared to cardiac irregularities.

Choice C reason: An irregular rapid heart rate (tachycardia or arrhythmia) is a serious albuterol side effect, as beta-2 agonists can stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, causing cardiovascular instability. This warrants immediate intervention, as it risks cardiac compromise, especially in emphysema patients with compromised respiratory and cardiac reserves.

Choice D reason: Increased anxiety is a possible albuterol side effect due to its stimulatory effects on the central nervous system. While distressing, it is not immediately life-threatening. It requires monitoring but is secondary to cardiovascular complications, which pose a greater acute risk in emphysema patients with wheezing.

Choice A reason: Chronic constipation and serum gastrin levels are not directly relevant to acute pancreatitis. Constipation may indicate gastrointestinal issues, but gastrin primarily relates to gastric acid secretion. These do not confirm pancreatitis or guide acute management, unlike amylase levels, which are diagnostic for pancreatic inflammation.

Choice B reason: Helicobacter pylori antibodies indicate gastric infection, unrelated to pancreatitis, which involves pancreatic inflammation. Urine output is a general vital sign but not specific to pancreatitis diagnosis. Amylase and symptom severity are more critical for confirming and managing acute pancreatitis, making this less valuable.

Choice C reason: Bowel sounds and abdominal pain degree provide general information but are nonspecific. Pain is expected in pancreatitis, and bowel sounds may vary. Serum amylase and nausea/vomiting severity are more diagnostic, directly reflecting pancreatic inflammation and its systemic effects, making them more critical to report.

Choice D reason: Serum amylase levels are a key diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis, as pancreatic inflammation releases amylase into the blood. Severity of nausea and vomiting reflects disease impact and fluid loss, guiding treatment. These are the most valuable data for reporting, as they confirm diagnosis and inform management.