Hesi RN exit exam

Hesi RN exit exam

Total Questions : 105

Showing 10 questions Sign up for more
Question 1: View
Exhibits


What goal(s) should the nurse prioritize in the care plan for the client while in the emergency department? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A. While addressing anxiety is important, it is not the most immediate priority in the emergency setting where acute pain, potential infection, and fluid management take precedence.
B. Given the diagnosis of appendicitis, preventing infection is crucial. The client is at risk for developing an infection or sepsis if the appendix perforates, which could result in peritonitis.
C. The client is experiencing severe abdominal pain (pain rating of 9/10). Effective pain management is essential for the client’s comfort and stabilization.
D. This is more relevant post-surgery. In the emergency department, the focus should be on stabilizing the client and preparing her for surgery.
E. The client has regular bowel movements and this is not a priority in the context of acute appendicitis.
F. This is a consideration for longer-term inpatient care or post-surgery, not an immediate priority in the emergency setting.
G. The client is receiving a bolus of Lactated Ringer’s to manage her fluid volume.

Maintaining adequate hydration and correcting any potential dehydration or fluid imbalance is vital.
H. Educating the client about her diagnosis and the plan of care, including the upcoming surgery, helps reduce anxiety and ensures that she is informed about her treatment.


Question 2: View

Patient Data

Exhibits

Click to select the 5 most important nursing interventions for postoperative client care.

Explanation

A. Early ambulation helps prevent complications such as atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It also promotes intestinal motility.
B. Monitoring for bleeding should be more frequent, especially in the immediate postoperative period, rather than just once daily.
C. This helps prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis and promotes lung expansion.
D. Adequate hydration is essential to maintain fluid balance, promote healing, and prevent complications such as urinary tract infections and constipation.
E. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure that pain medications are not causing excessive drowsiness, which could impair the client's ability to participate in activities such as ambulation and use of the incentive spirometer.

F. While assessing neurological status is important, frequent neurological assessments are more relevant for clients with neurological conditions or concerns. In this case, routine assessments should be sufficient unless the client has specific neurological symptoms.
G. Pain medications should be administered prophylactically before activity. However, it can also be administered after activity in case the client complains of pain.


Question 3: View
Exhibits

The nurse is caring for the client.

Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse prioritize?

Explanation

A. Tachycardia indicates the body is responding to pain, infection, or potential sepsis. It's a critical vital sign indicating the body's stress response.
B. Tachypnea can be a response to pain or anxiety but also indicates the need for careful monitoring of respiratory status, especially postoperatively.

C. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion.
D. Radial and pedal pulses 2+ are within the normal range and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion.
E. Severe abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant is a primary symptom of appendicitis, which is confirmed by the CT scan showing a dilated appendix and fat stranding. Immediate attention is needed to address potential complications such as rupture.
F. Feeling anxious needs to be managed to promote patient comfort. However, it doesn’t need to be managed immediately since it is not life-threatening.
G. Fever is a sign of infection or inflammation, common in appendicitis. Monitoring and managing fever is crucial in preventing further complications.
H. Bilious vomitus is a common finding in appendicitis and may indicate that the inflammation has progressed to a point where it is causing a blockage in the intestines. This obstruction can lead to increased pressure within the abdominal cavity and compromise blood flow, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
I. A blood pressure of 115/76 mm Hg is within normal limits and indicates stable hemodynamics at this point.


Question 4: View

Which is the best approach for the nurse to use when interviewing a client about sexual abuse?

Explanation

A.Beginning with less sensitive questions helps establish trust and rapport with the client, making it easier to discuss more difficult topics later. This approach can make the client feel more comfortable and less threatened, thereby improving the quality of the information gathered.

B.Sharing personal values can introduce bias and potentially influence the client's responses, making the interview less objective.

C.Starting with the most difficult questions can make the client feel anxious and defensive, reducing the likelihood of obtaining honest and thorough responses.

D.Asking vague, non-specific questions can lead to ambiguous answers and fail to provide the detailed information needed for a proper assessment.


Question 5: View

The healthcare provider prescribes 1 unit (350 mL) of packed red blood cells (PRBC) to infuse over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter the numeric value only. Round to the nearest whole number.)

Explanation

To calculate the drip rate for an IV, you can use the formula: (Volume to be infused (mL) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)) / Time (min). For the prescribed 1 unit of PRBC at 350 mL to be infused over 4 hours with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL, the calculation would be: (350 mL x 15 gtt/mL) / (4 hours x 60 minutes/hour). This simplifies to (5250 gtt) / (240 min), which equals 21.875 gtt/min. When rounded to the nearest whole number, the nurse should regulate the infusion to 22 gtt/min.


Question 6: View

A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?

Explanation

A. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication that is effective in rapidly treating acute dystonic reactions, including laryngeal spasms, which can be life-threatening. It works by counteracting the imbalance of neurotransmitters caused by certain medications.
B. Divalproex is used for mood stabilization and seizure control but is not effective in treating acute dystonic reactions.
C. Lorazepam, while useful for anxiety and agitation, is not the first-line treatment for dystonic reactions and does not address the underlying neurotransmitter imbalance.
D. Isotonic crystalloid fluids are important for hydration but do not treat the cause of the dystonic reaction.


Question 7: View

The adult child of an older adult client who has Parkinson's disease, calls the clinic and reports that the client has been confused for the past week. What action(s) should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A. Falls can lead to head injuries or subdural hematomas, which can cause confusion in older adults. It is important to assess for recent trauma as a possible cause of the confusion.
B. An elevated temperature can indicate an infection, such as a urinary tract infection (UTI) or pneumonia, which are common causes of acute confusion in older adults.
C. Pain with urination is a symptom of a UTI, which can lead to confusion, especially in elderly patients with Parkinson's disease.
D. While maintaining adequate nutrition is important, increasing protein intake does not directly address the sudden onset of confusion.
E. New medications or allergic reactions can lead to confusion. A medication interaction or an allergic reaction to a new food could be a contributing factor.


Question 8: View

A 2-year-old is brought to the emergency department (ED) with a history of several days of rhinitis and now exhibits a productive barking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional finding should alert the nurse that the child is experiencing respiratory distress?

Explanation

A. A respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute can be normal for a 2-year-old, so it is not necessarily indicative of distress by itself.

B.Flaring of the nares is a sign of increased work of breathing and is an indication of respiratory distress, as the child is using accessory muscles to breathe.

C.Diaphragmatic respirations are typical for young children and not indicative of distress unless other signs are present.

D.Bilateral bronchial breath sounds do not necessarily indicate respiratory distress and could be normal depending on the context.


Question 9: View

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who underwent a percutaneous nephrolithotomy with nephrostomy tube placement. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's postoperative discharge teaching?

Explanation

A. Pink-tinged hematuria is expected after the procedure, but reporting should be directed at increased bleeding or other signs of complications.
B. While some activity restrictions are necessary, a complete restriction of all physical activities is generally not advised and can lead to other complications like blood clots or decreased mobility.
C. An incentive spirometer is typically used to prevent respiratory complications post-surgery, but it is not specifically related to nephrolithotomy procedures.
D. Monitoring the urinary output is crucial because decreased output can indicate a blockage or other complications related to the nephrostomy tube.


Question 10: View

A client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks to make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

Explanation

A. Regression involves reverting to behaviors from an earlier developmental stage, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
B. Suppression is the conscious decision to delay paying attention to a thought or feeling, which is not evident here.
C. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another trait or skill, which does not apply to this situation.
D. Sublimation is the process of channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. By vigorously working on the leather belt, the client is redirecting potentially aggressive energy into a constructive and creative outlet.


You just viewed 10 questions out of the 105 questions on the Hesi RN exit exam Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams.

Subscribe Now

learning

Join Naxlex Nursing for nursing questions & guides! Sign Up Now