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Lpn nursing 1 fundamental exam (witcc collage)
Lpn nursing 1 fundamental exam (witcc collage)
Total Questions : 47
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is attending a continuing education course about communicable diseases. During which phase does the client develop non-specific symptoms such as malaise, fever, and body aches?
Explanation
A. In this phase, the client develops non-specific symptoms such as malaise, fever, and body aches, indicating the onset of the disease.
B. This phase occurs after the pathogen enters the body but before symptoms appear.
C. This phase is marked by recovery and the resolution of symptoms.
D. This phase refers to the period during which the disease can be transmitted to others.
A client diagnosed with gout has been instructed on limiting the intake of purine-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Explanation
A. Whole wheat pasta is not typically high in purines.
B. Broccoli is a vegetable and generally not high in purines.
C. Shellfish, such as shrimp, crab, and lobster, are high in purines and should be avoided by individuals with gout.
D. Cranberries are fruits and are generally low in purines.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has been placed on airborne precautions. Which of the following in an appropriate nursing precaution?
Explanation
A. Allowing the client to ambulate in the hall would not be an appropriate precaution for airborne precautions.
B. This is an appropriate precaution to prevent the nurse from inhaling airborne pathogens.
C. While maintaining distance may help reduce the risk of transmission, wearing appropriate personal protective equipment is essential.
D. Providing a positive air pressure room is not typically a nursing precaution but rather a facility consideration for isolation rooms.
A client had a right knee replaced 4 days ago. The client returns with an elevated temperature for the past 24 hours. Which assessment would the nurse prioritize?
Explanation
A. While monitoring urine characteristics is important for overall assessment, it may not be the priority in this situation.
B. Homan's sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and may not be directly related to the client's current symptoms.
C. Elevated temperature after knee replacement surgery could indicate a potential infection, including pneumonia, so assessing lung sounds for signs of infection is a priority.
D. Diarrhea may be indicative of gastrointestinal issues but is less likely to be directly related to the client's current symptoms after knee replacement surgery.
A nurse is concerned about a client's ability to withstand exposure to pathogens. Which blood component should the nurse monitor?
Explanation
A. Platelets are involved in blood clotting and are not directly related to the body's ability to withstand exposure to pathogens.
B. Hemoglobin carries oxygen in the blood and is not directly related to the body's immune response to pathogens.
C. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the body's immune response to pathogens, including phagocytosis.
D. Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, carry oxygen in the blood and are not directly involved in the body's immune response to pathogens.
The nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The amount available is furosemide oral solution 10mg/1mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole number and label your answer.)
Explanation
To answer this question, the nurse needs to use the formula:
mL = (mg x 1 mL) / mg
where mg is the prescribed dose and mL is the available dose. Plugging in the values, we get:
mL = (80 mg x 1 mL) / 10 mg mL = 8 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution.
The health care provider ordered a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. After the nurse collects the specimen, the client asks, "When will I know the results of the test?" Which of the following is the best response?
Explanation
A. Urine culture and sensitivity tests typically take longer than 30 minutes to yield results.
B. While some preliminary results may be available within 24 hours, the full culture and sensitivity testing usually take longer.
C. Waiting 7-10 days for results would be excessive for a urine culture and sensitivity test.
D. Typically, it takes 48-72 hours to obtain the growth and sensitivity results for a urine culture, allowing time for bacterial growth and sensitivity testing.
At 1930 the nurse notes that the client has rapid, more labored respirations with frequent coughing that is producing thick tenacious secretions. The client is alert and oriented and able to speak, between coughing episodes. She states that the last time she had this much coughing, the respiratory therapist (RT) gave her a nebulizer treatment, which "helped a lot."
What nursing actions would the nurse implement at this time in coordination with the registered nurse (RN)? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. While encouraging fluid intake is generally beneficial, this action alone may not adequately address the client's respiratory distress.
B. Obtaining the client's vital signs and noting changes from previous readings is essential for assessing the client's condition and response to interventions.
C. Administering antitussive medication may not be appropriate as the client is able to expectorate secretions, and suppressing the cough may hinder clearance of secretions.
D. Positioning the client in a high-Fowler position helps improve lung expansion, aiding in respiratory effort.
E. Increasing the supplemental oxygen flow can help alleviate respiratory distress by improving oxygenation.
F. Calling the respiratory therapist for a nebulizer treatment is appropriate, especially since the client reported previous relief with this intervention.
G. Increasing IV fluids may not directly address the client's respiratory distress and should be based on fluid status and other clinical indications.
H. Documenting findings and actions taken ensures proper communication and continuity of care.
I. Contacting the Rapid Response Team may not be necessary as the client is alert and oriented and not in immediate distress.
J. Listening to the client's breath sounds allows the nurse to compare with previous findings and evaluate respiratory status.
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is being admitted to the facility with a suspected diagnosis of pertussis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. While standard precautions should be followed, the use of sterile gloves for routine care related to pertussis is not necessary.
B. Placing a surgical mask on the client during transportation may help prevent the spread of respiratory droplets but is not a comprehensive infection control measure.
C. Wearing a gown for all client cares is unnecessary and may not be practical.
D. Wearing a mask when providing care within 10 feet of the client helps reduce the risk of droplet transmission of pertussis.
The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with osteoarthritis. What findings would the nurse anticipate during their assessment?
Explanation
A. Crepitus, which is a crackling or grating sensation, is commonly associated with osteoarthritis and is often felt or heard with joint movement.
B. Osteoarthritis typically results in limited range of motion rather than full range of motion.
C. Osteoarthritis usually affects specific joints, rather than causing bilateral joint inflammation.
D. Osteoarthritis pain is typically described as deep, aching, and worsened with activity, rather than superficial and sharp.
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