A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with continuous seizure activity. He has a history of seizures but has not been compliant with his medication. On examination, he is unresponsive and demonstrates ongoing generalized tonic-clonic movements. Vital signs reveal tachycardia and hypertension. What type of seizure is most likely occurring?
Absence seizure
Status epilepticus
Myoclonic seizure
Tonic-clonic seizure
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Absence seizures involve brief staring spells, not continuous tonic-clonic movements. The patient’s prolonged, unresponsive seizure activity indicates status epilepticus, so this is incorrect for the seizure type.
Choice B reason: Status epilepticus is continuous or recurrent seizures lasting over 5 minutes, often tonic-clonic, with unresponsiveness, tachycardia, and hypertension. This matches the patient’s presentation, making it the correct type.
Choice C reason: Myoclonic seizures cause brief muscle jerks, not prolonged tonic-clonic activity. Status epilepticus describes the continuous seizure state, so this is incorrect for the observed seizure.
Choice D reason: Tonic-clonic seizure is a single event, but continuous activity suggests status epilepticus. The prolonged duration and unresponsiveness point to status, so this is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A fracture is a break in the bone, as seen in the patient, but osteosarcoma is the underlying tumor causing the pathological fracture. Defining osteosarcoma as a fracture ignores its neoplastic nature, making this incorrect.
Choice B reason: A bone infection, or osteomyelitis, involves bacterial or fungal invasion, causing pain and inflammation. Osteosarcoma is a primary bone cancer, not an infection, with distinct histopathological features, making this an incorrect definition.
Choice C reason: Osteosarcoma is a malignant bone tumor, typically arising in long bones like the humerus, often causing pain, swelling, and pathological fractures. This matches the patient’s imaging findings and clinical presentation, making this the correct definition.
Choice D reason: A benign bone tumor, like an osteoma, does not metastasize or cause aggressive destruction. Osteosarcoma’s malignant nature leads to local invasion and potential metastasis, as implied by the fracture, making this incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infarction is permanent tissue death from prolonged blood loss, not temporary deprivation. Ischemia describes reversible reduced blood supply, matching the question, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemia is the temporary deprivation of blood supply to cells, causing reduced oxygen delivery but potentially reversible damage. This fits the description, making it the correct term.
Choice C reason: Necrosis is irreversible cell death, not temporary blood supply loss. Ischemia is the term for reversible deprivation, so this is incorrect for the described condition.
Choice D reason: Inflammation is a response to injury, not blood supply deprivation. Ischemia specifically refers to temporary reduced blood flow, so this is incorrect for the term.
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