Aspirin can prevent inappropriate blood clotting in the following ways except:
Aspirin can reduce unwanted platelet adhesion by inhibiting TXA2 synthesis
Platelet aggregation can be reduced through inhibition of prostaglandin production by aspirin
Aspirin inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin and consequent platelet plug formation
Aspirin helps to inhibit ADP action and minimizes platelet plug formation
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Aspirin inhibits TXA2 synthesis, reducing platelet adhesion and clotting. This is a true mechanism of aspirin’s antiplatelet effect, so it’s incorrect as the exception.
Choice B reason: Aspirin reduces prostaglandin production, which decreases platelet aggregation. This is a valid antiplatelet mechanism, so it’s incorrect for the action aspirin does not perform.
Choice C reason: Aspirin does not inhibit fibrinogen-to-fibrin conversion; this is part of the coagulation cascade, not platelet function. Aspirin targets platelets, making this the correct action it doesn’t perform.
Choice D reason: Aspirin inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation, minimizing plug formation. This is a true antiplatelet effect, so it’s incorrect as the action aspirin does not do.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Inward-pointing feet, or pigeon-toed appearance, describe intoeing, often due to metatarsus adductus or tibial torsion. Genu varum involves the knees angling outward, causing a bowed leg appearance, not foot positioning, making this an incorrect description.
Choice B reason: Genu varum, or bowlegs, is characterized by knees angling outward, creating a bowed appearance of the legs. This condition, common in toddlers or due to conditions like rickets, matches the described deformity, making this the correct description.
Choice C reason: Knees angling inward, causing a knock-kneed appearance, describes genu valgum, not genu varum. These are opposite deformities, with genu varum involving outward knee angulation, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Hyperextension of the knee joint, causing excessive leg straightening, describes genu recurvatum, not genu varum. Genu varum involves lateral knee angulation, not hyperextension, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) causes isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune platelet destruction, leading to bleeding like petechiae. However, it does not typically cause prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, or DVT, making it inconsistent with Lorretta’s multi-system coagulopathy.
Choice B reason: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage but typically presents with neurological or renal symptoms, not prolonged PT/aPTT or DVT. Lorretta’s coagulopathy and DVT history better align with another condition, making TTP incorrect.
Choice C reason: Hemophilia, a genetic clotting factor deficiency, causes prolonged aPTT but not thrombocytopenia, elevated D-dimer, or DVT. It primarily affects males and causes joint or muscle bleeds, not diffuse bleeding like Lorretta’s, making this an incorrect diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, causing thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and petechiae. Lorretta’s DVT history and anticoagulant use may trigger DIC, with leg swelling indicating thrombosis, making this the correct diagnosis.
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