A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory stridor, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What treatment do you anticipate for this patient as the priority?
Antibiotics
Sputum culture
Inhaled bronchodilator
History of illness exposure
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Antibiotics treat bacterial infections, but inspiratory stridor, cough, and tachypnea suggest acute airway obstruction, like croup or bronchospasm. Antibiotics are not immediate for these symptoms, as they address infection, not airway narrowing, making this a lower-priority treatment.
Choice B reason: Sputum culture identifies pathogens but is not urgent for inspiratory stridor, which indicates airway compromise needing immediate relief. Cultures guide long-term therapy, not acute management, making this an incorrect priority for the patient’s presentation.
Choice C reason: Inhaled bronchodilators, like albuterol, are the priority for inspiratory stridor, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea, as they relax airway smooth muscles, relieving bronchospasm or narrowing. This addresses acute airway obstruction, common in conditions like asthma or croup, making it the correct treatment.
Choice D reason: History of illness exposure informs diagnosis but delays treatment for acute airway symptoms. Inspiratory stridor requires immediate intervention to ensure airway patency, making history-taking secondary to addressing the urgent respiratory distress, thus an incorrect priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Gout tophi are urate crystal deposits, typically on joints like the big toe, not widespread on hands. Osteoarthritis nodes (Heberden’s/Bouchard’s) are more common in elderly hands, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Rheumatoid nodules occur in rheumatoid arthritis, usually near elbows, not diffusely on hands. Osteoarthritis nodes are bony growths on finger joints, more likely in this patient, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Osteoarthritis nodes (Heberden’s and Bouchard’s) are bony lumps on finger joints, common in elderly women with joint pain. This matches the hand findings, making it the correct diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Carpal tunnel syndrome causes wrist pain and numbness, not joint lumps. Osteoarthritis nodes explain the hand bumps in this elderly patient, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Osteosarcoma is a bone cancer, not linked to age, weight, height, or menopausal status. Mrs. Bone’s risk factors (age, race, postmenopausal) align with osteopenia/osteoporosis, not cancer, so this is incorrect for her disorder and risks.
Choice B reason: Osteopenia, low bone density, is likely given Mrs. Bone’s age (68), postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight (128 lb), and height (5’3”). These increase fracture risk, making this a correct choice for her disorder and risk factors.
Choice C reason: Osteoporosis is a risk for Mrs. Bone due to her age, postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight, and height. These factors reduce bone mass, aligning with osteoporosis risk, making this a correct selection for her condition.
Choice D reason: Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, is unrelated to age, weight, or height. Mrs. Bone’s profile matches osteopenia/osteoporosis risk factors, not infection, so this is incorrect for her disorder and associated risks.
Choice E reason: Mrs. Bone has clear risk factors (age, postmenopausal, race, weight, height) for bone density disorders. Stating she has no risk factors ignores her profile, so this is incorrect for her condition and risks.
Choice F reason: Osteomalacia, caused by vitamin D deficiency, is less likely than osteopenia/osteoporosis given her risk factors. Age and postmenopausal status point to bone density issues, so this is incorrect for her primary disorder.
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