A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory stridor, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What treatment do you anticipate for this patient as the priority?
Antibiotics
Sputum culture
Inhaled bronchodilator
History of illness exposure
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Antibiotics treat bacterial infections, but inspiratory stridor, cough, and tachypnea suggest acute airway obstruction, like croup or bronchospasm. Antibiotics are not immediate for these symptoms, as they address infection, not airway narrowing, making this a lower-priority treatment.
Choice B reason: Sputum culture identifies pathogens but is not urgent for inspiratory stridor, which indicates airway compromise needing immediate relief. Cultures guide long-term therapy, not acute management, making this an incorrect priority for the patient’s presentation.
Choice C reason: Inhaled bronchodilators, like albuterol, are the priority for inspiratory stridor, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea, as they relax airway smooth muscles, relieving bronchospasm or narrowing. This addresses acute airway obstruction, common in conditions like asthma or croup, making it the correct treatment.
Choice D reason: History of illness exposure informs diagnosis but delays treatment for acute airway symptoms. Inspiratory stridor requires immediate intervention to ensure airway patency, making history-taking secondary to addressing the urgent respiratory distress, thus an incorrect priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Latent phase follows seroconversion, not precedes infection. The correct sequence—exposure, infection, seroconversion, AIDS—reflects HIV progression. This option misorders the phases, making it incorrect for AIDS development.
Choice B reason: AIDS progresses through exposure (virus contact), infection (HIV enters body), seroconversion (antibody detection), and AIDS (advanced disease). This sequence accurately describes the disease’s history, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Symptomatic AIDS is not a distinct phase; AIDS itself is symptomatic. The standard progression includes exposure, infection, seroconversion, and AIDS, so “symptomatic AIDS” is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Window phase is part of seroconversion, not separate, and acute phase is early infection. The sequence—exposure, infection, seroconversion, AIDS—is clearer, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Wheezing is associated with lung conditions or left heart failure, not right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema results from venous congestion in right heart failure, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Vasospasms are linked to vascular conditions, not right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema is a hallmark due to fluid backup, so this is incorrect for the manifestation.
Choice C reason: Peripheral edema, swelling in legs or ankles, is a primary manifestation of right-sided heart failure, caused by venous congestion from impaired right heart pumping. This is the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Tingling in extremities is neurological or vascular, not typical of right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema is more characteristic, so this is incorrect for the manifestation.
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