A 35-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL. Based on these findings, what is the most likely type of anemia?

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

Aplastic anemia

Iron deficiency anemia

Hemolytic anemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia typically presents with larger red blood cells (high MCV) and neurological symptoms, which are not present in this case.
B.   Aplastic anemia typically results in pancytopenia, and there is no mention of other blood cell line abnormalities.
C.   Iron deficiency anemia is the most likely diagnosis, as it is characterized by low hemoglobin levels and a low MCV (microcytic anemia), which is consistent with the laboratory results.
D.   Hemolytic anemia generally presents with elevated reticulocyte count and jaundice, neither of which are mentioned here.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis involves a steady decline in function with or without relapses, which is different from the relapsing-remitting pattern.
B. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS) is the most common type of MS and is characterized by flare-ups of symptoms followed by periods of partial or complete recovery with no symptoms.
C. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis involves a gradual worsening of symptoms without distinct relapses or remissions. This pattern does not match the client's description of periods without symptoms.
D. Clinically isolating syndrome refers to the first episode of neurologic symptoms that lasts for at least24 hours and is indicative of MS, but this is a different stage than relapsing-remitting MS.

A. Decreased blood pressure B. Metabolic acidosis C. Hypocalcemia D. Increased urine specific gravity

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Decreased blood pressure is not typically associated with contrast-induced nephropathy. In fact, patients may present with normal or elevated blood pressure, especially in those with a history of chronic hypertension.
B. Metabolic acidosis is a common complication of acute kidney injury (AKI), including contrast-induced nephropathy. As kidney function declines, the kidneys' ability to excrete acids diminishes, leading to the accumulation of acids in the blood and resulting in metabolic acidosis.
C. Hypocalcemia is not a common feature of contrast-induced nephropathy. While AKI can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate balance, hypocalcemia is not typically a predominant finding.
D. Increased urine specific gravity may not be a significant finding in contrast-induced nephropathy. This condition generally leads to impaired kidney function, which may present with urine output changes, but urine specific gravity can vary depending on the stage of AKI.

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A 35-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL. Based on these findings, what is the most likely type of anemia?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. The client reports that, since the onset of the disease, there are times when their symptoms are active and then followed by a period with no symptoms. Which of the following types of multiple sclerosis does this pattern indicate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A 72-year-old patient with a history of chronic hypertension is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to contrast-induced nephropathy. Which clinical finding would most likely be present in this patient?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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A nurse is reviewing the potential complications associated with peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as possible complications of PUD? (Select All that Apply.)

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