A 52-year-old female presents with continuous abdominal pain that intensifies after eating. She is diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. Contributing factors include:
alcohol abuse
bulimia
history of gallstones
bacterial infection
Correct Answer : A,C
Choice A reason:
Alcohol abuse is the leading cause of chronic pancreatitis in many cases. Chronic alcohol consumption leads to repeated episodes of pancreatic inflammation, resulting in fibrosis, loss of pancreatic function, and structural damage. Alcohol directly stimulates pancreatic secretions and contributes to the formation of protein plugs that obstruct pancreatic ducts, exacerbating the condition.
Choice B reason:
Bulimia is not a known contributing factor for chronic pancreatitis. While eating disorders can have gastrointestinal manifestations, they do not directly lead to the chronic inflammatory process seen in pancreatitis.
Choice C reason:
A history of gallstones is a recognized contributing factor to chronic pancreatitis. Gallstones can intermittently block the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation and damage over time. While gallstones are more commonly associated with acute pancreatitis, they also play a role in the chronic form if untreated or recurrent.
Choice D reason:
Bacterial infection is not a primary contributing factor to chronic pancreatitis. While infections can complicate pancreatic conditions, they do not typically initiate the chronic inflammatory process. Chronic pancreatitis is more often caused by mechanical, toxic, or genetic factors rather than infectious agents.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Using a different antifungal agent might be necessary due to the potential interaction between voriconazole and warfarin. Voriconazole can increase the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, selecting an alternative antifungal that does not interact with warfarin could be the safest option for the patient.
Choice B reason:
Reducing the dose of voriconazole may not adequately address the drug interaction issue. Voriconazole can significantly affect warfarin metabolism even at lower doses, leading to potential complications. Therefore, this choice is less likely to be recommended.
Choice C reason:
Administering intravenous voriconazole does not change its interaction with warfarin. The method of administration does not alter the drug's effect on warfarin metabolism, making this option inappropriate for managing the drug interaction.
Choice D reason:
Increasing the dose of warfarin is not a viable option as voriconazole increases warfarin's anticoagulant effect. This would further elevate the risk of bleeding and is not recommended. Thus, this option is incorrect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Lactulose is the medication of choice for treating elevated ammonia levels, commonly seen in hepatic encephalopathy associated with cirrhosis. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia from the intestines, converting ammonia to ammonium, which is then excreted. Administering lactulose helps in lowering blood ammonia levels and improving mental status in affected patients.
Choice B reason:
Polyethylene glycol (MiraLax) is a laxative used to treat constipation. It does not have any role in reducing ammonia levels or treating hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this patient's elevated ammonia condition.
Choice C reason:
0.9% NS (normal saline) is primarily used for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte balance. While essential in managing cirrhotic patients with fluid imbalances, it does not address the elevated ammonia levels directly. Therefore, it is not the treatment of choice for this specific situation.
Choice D reason:
Docusate sodium (Colace) is a stool softener used to treat constipation. It does not have any effect on ammonia levels or the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. Thus, it is not appropriate for managing elevated ammonia in this patient.
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