A client is prescribed antibiotics while awaiting the results of their wound culture. The nurse understands this method of medication therapy is known as:

Palliative therapy

Prophylactic therapy

Maintenance Therapy

Empiric therapy

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Palliative therapy: Palliative therapy is aimed at providing relief from symptoms and improving the quality of life in patients with serious or terminal illnesses. It does not pertain to the use of antibiotics before culture results are available.

B) Prophylactic therapy: Prophylactic therapy is used to prevent the occurrence of an illness or infection before it happens. For example, antibiotics given before surgery to prevent infections would be considered prophylactic therapy, but this is not the case here.

C) Maintenance therapy: Maintenance therapy is used to sustain a desired level of therapeutic effect after an initial treatment phase. It focuses on keeping a condition under control rather than addressing an acute or uncertain condition.

D) Empiric therapy: Empiric therapy refers to the use of antibiotics or other medications based on clinical judgment and initial symptoms before the results of diagnostic tests, such as wound cultures, are available. This approach is used to start treatment promptly and manage the infection while awaiting precise identification of the pathogen.

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Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"C"},"B":{"answers":"D"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse opioid overdoses.

Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and can reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.

Glucagon can be used to treat beta-blocker overdose by increasing heart rate and blood pressure.

Acetylcysteine acts as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity by replenishing glutathione levels to enhance non-toxic metabolism of acetaminophen.

A. The drug will be more effective when given in a nonenteral route. B. The drug will be most effective when given orally C. The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications D. The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the blood stream

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The drug will be more effective when given in a nonenteral route:
Morphine has a high first-pass effect when taken orally, meaning that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the amount of active drug available in the bloodstream. To avoid this extensive metabolism, morphine is often administered through nonenteral routes, such as intravenous or subcutaneous, where it bypasses the digestive system and liver first-pass metabolism, resulting in higher systemic bioavailability and effectiveness.

B. The drug will be most effective when given orally:
Due to the high first-pass effect of oral morphine, a significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This means that oral morphine is often less effective compared to other routes of administration, such as intravenous, because the bioavailability of the drug is reduced.

C. The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications:
The high first-pass effect primarily affects the drug's absorption and systemic availability rather than its excretion rate. The rate at which a drug is excreted by the kidneys is generally unrelated to its first-pass effect. Morphine’s excretion is influenced by its metabolism and clearance, but not directly by the first-pass effect.

D. The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream:
The first-pass effect occurs primarily in the liver, not the kidneys. It involves the metabolism of the drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. Therefore, this option incorrectly attributes the first-pass effect to kidney metabolism.

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A client is prescribed antibiotics while awaiting the results of their wound culture. The nurse understands this method of medication therapy is known as:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the antagonist action of reversal medications. For each medication listed below, click to specify the expected reversal agent

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"C"},"B":{"answers":"D"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which situation demonstrates ethical reporting of a medication error?

A client is prescribed antibiotics while awaiting the results of their wound culture. The nurse understands this method of medication therapy is known as:

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a 54-year old client. Which medications taken would be affected by the first-pass effect? (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is teaching with a group of nurses about the administration of nitroglycerin. Which of the following routes of administration provides the most rapid onset for the client?

The nurse is caring for a client who needs to have a peak drug level drawn. The client was given an oral medication 30 minutes ago. What is the best action by the nurse?

Complete the following sentence using the options in the drop down selection. _____ Is what the body does with the drug versus ____ which is what the drug does to the body.

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client who states, "That looks different from the pill I usually take." Which is the best response by the nurse?

A nurse is caring for a client who overdosed on morphine and has a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer?