A client is prescribed ferrous sulfate.
Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client's medical record.
The nurse would withhold the drug and contact the primary health care provider if the client's history revealed which of the following?
Hemolytic anemia.
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic kidney disease.
Hypertension.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Hemolytic anemia Hemolytic anemia is a contraindication for the use of ferrous sulfate, which is an iron supplement. Iron can exacerbate hemolysis in individuals with certain types of hemolytic anemia, leading to further breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, the nurse should withhold the drug and consult with the primary healthcare provider to explore alternative treatments.
Choice B rationale:
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is not a direct contraindication for ferrous sulfate. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia, and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a separate condition that requires different treatments. These two conditions are not typically interrelated in terms of treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Anemia of chronic kidney disease Anemia of chronic kidney disease is a condition where the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. While ferrous sulfate may not be the first-line treatment for this type of anemia, it is not a strict contraindication. The decision to use iron supplements would depend on the individual patient's needs and the primary healthcare provider's recommendations.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension Hypertension is not a contraindication for ferrous sulfate use. While patients with high blood pressure should be monitored closely, iron supplementation does not directly affect blood pressure regulation. The nurse should consider potential interactions with other medications the client may be taking, but hypertension alone is not a reason to withhold ferrous sulfate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tetracycline can increase the levels of digoxin (Lanoxin) in the blood, leading to an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. This interaction occurs because tetracycline can interfere with the metabolism and excretion of digoxin, causing higher concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream1. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, patients taking both medications should be closely monitored for signs of toxicity and may require dosage adjustments.
Choice B rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. While both medications can be used together, they do not significantly affect each other's metabolism or excretion1.
Choice C rationale: Vancomycin (Vancocin) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. Both medications can be used together without causing significant changes in their metabolism or excretion1.
Choice D rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. While both medications can be used together, they do not significantly affect each other's metabolism or excretion
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