A client is weak and drowsy after a lumbar puncture. The nurse caring for the client knows that what priority nursing intervention should be provided after a lumbar puncture?

Position the client flat as directed.

Leave the client to rest and do not perform any assessments.

Provide caffeine-rich drinks to the client.

Avoid administering analgesic agents to the client.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Positioning the client flat as directed is the priority intervention after a lumbar puncture to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, which can lead to a post-lumbar puncture headache. This position helps maintain normal CSF pressure and promotes sealing of the puncture site.

Choice B rationale

Leaving the client to rest without performing any assessments is not appropriate, as continuous monitoring is necessary to detect any complications such as bleeding or changes in neurological status. Regular assessments help ensure timely intervention if issues arise.

Choice C rationale

Providing caffeine-rich drinks is sometimes recommended to alleviate headaches caused by CSF leakage post-lumbar puncture. However, it is not the priority intervention immediately after the procedure, which focuses on positioning and monitoring.

Choice D rationale

Avoiding analgesic agents is incorrect. Pain management is an important aspect of care post-lumbar puncture, and appropriate analgesics should be administered as needed. The focus should be on positioning and monitoring, not withholding pain relief.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Stupor refers to a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, where the patient can be briefly aroused by vigorous or repeated stimuli.

Choice B rationale

Somnolence refers to a state of strong desire for sleep or sleeping for unusually long periods (drowsiness), but it is not as severe as stupor or coma.

Choice C rationale

Normal consciousness means the patient is awake, alert, and responsive to their environment with no neurological deficits.

Choice D rationale

A score of 6 on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates deep coma, where the patient has minimal to no response to stimuli, indicating severe brain injury.

A. Aspiration of synovial fluid for serologic testing. B. Injection of corticosteroids into the client's knee joint to facilitate ROM. C. Injection of a contrast agent into the knee joint prior to ROM exercises. D. Replacement of the client's synovial fluid with a synthetic substitute. E. Replacement of the client's synovial fluid with a synthetic substitute.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Aspiration of synovial fluid for serologic testing is a procedure known as arthrocentesis, which involves extracting joint fluid for analysis. While useful for diagnosing conditions like infections or arthritis, it is not the same as arthrography, which involves imaging.

Choice B rationale

Injection of corticosteroids into the client's knee joint to facilitate ROM is a therapeutic procedure to reduce inflammation and improve movement in conditions like arthritis, but it is not part of an arthrography procedure.

Choice C rationale

Injection of a contrast agent into the knee joint prior to ROM exercises is a key part of arthrography. The contrast agent helps to enhance the imaging of the joint structures during movement, allowing for a detailed assessment of the joint.

Choice D rationale

Replacement of the client's synovial fluid with a synthetic substitute is not related to arthrography. This description aligns more with viscosupplementation, a treatment for osteoarthritis.

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A client is weak and drowsy after a lumbar puncture. The nurse caring for the client knows that what priority nursing intervention should be provided after a lumbar puncture?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The critical care nurse is giving end-of-shift report on a client. The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess the level of consciousness (LOC) of a female client and reports to the oncoming nurse that the client has an LOC of 6. What does an LOC score of 6 in a client indicate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client has been experiencing an unexplained decline in knee function and has consequently been scheduled for arthrography. The nurse should teach the client about what process?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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