A client with sickle cell anemia is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Administering pain medication
Applying warm compresses
Increasing fluid intake
Initiating oxygen therapy
The Correct Answer is D
A) This choice is incorrect because administering pain medication addresses the pain associated with the vaso-occlusive crisis, but the priority is to improve oxygenation first.
B) This choice is incorrect because warm compresses may provide comfort, but they do not directly address the underlying issue of vaso-occlusion and oxygen deficiency.
C) This choice is incorrect because although increasing fluid intake can help improve blood flow, it does not take precedence over addressing the oxygen deficiency.
D) This choice is correct because initiating oxygen therapy is the first priority in managing a vaso-occlusive crisis in a client with sickle cell anemia. It helps improve oxygenation and tissue perfusion, which are crucial during this crisis.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is characterized by an increased destruction of red blood cells, which would typically result in a high reticulocyte count.
B) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by a low level of iron, which leads to decreased hemoglobin production but does not necessarily affect reticulocyte count.
C) This choice is correct. Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of red blood cells, leading to a low reticulocyte count.
D) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which affects red blood cell maturation but does not directly influence reticulocyte count.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) This choice is correct. Headaches and dizziness are common symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia due to decreased oxygen delivery to the brain.
B) This choice is incorrect because headaches and dizziness are not specific to hemolytic anemia.
C) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is primarily associated with neurological symptoms such as tingling and difficulty maintaining balance, but not specifically headaches and dizziness.
D) This choice is incorrect because headaches and dizziness are not directly related to aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia primarily affects the bone marrow and leads to decreased production of all blood cells, rather than causing symptoms specific to the brain.
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