A client with sickle cell anemia is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Administering pain medication
Applying warm compresses
Increasing fluid intake
Initiating oxygen therapy
The Correct Answer is D
A) This choice is incorrect because administering pain medication addresses the pain associated with the vaso-occlusive crisis, but the priority is to improve oxygenation first.
B) This choice is incorrect because warm compresses may provide comfort, but they do not directly address the underlying issue of vaso-occlusion and oxygen deficiency.
C) This choice is incorrect because although increasing fluid intake can help improve blood flow, it does not take precedence over addressing the oxygen deficiency.
D) This choice is correct because initiating oxygen therapy is the first priority in managing a vaso-occlusive crisis in a client with sickle cell anemia. It helps improve oxygenation and tissue perfusion, which are crucial during this crisis.
Questions
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is more likely in clients with gastric bypass surgery due to reduced iron absorption, but it is not specific to this surgery.
B) This choice is correct. Pernicious anemia is associated with gastric bypass surgery because the procedure can lead to the loss of intrinsic factor-producing cells in the stomach, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
C) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is not directly linked to gastric bypass surgery.
D) This choice is incorrect because sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder and is not related to gastric bypass surgery.
Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because hemolytic anemia is characterized by an increased destruction of red blood cells, which would typically result in a high reticulocyte count.
B) This choice is incorrect because iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by a low level of iron, which leads to decreased hemoglobin production but does not necessarily affect reticulocyte count.
C) This choice is correct. Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of red blood cells, leading to a low reticulocyte count.
D) This choice is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which affects red blood cell maturation but does not directly influence reticulocyte count.
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